NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A client has developed a vitamin C deficiency. Which of the following symptoms might the nurse most likely see with this condition?
- A. Cracks at the corners of the mouth
- B. Altered mental status
- C. Bleeding gums and loose teeth
- D. Anorexia and diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client with a severe vitamin C deficiency has a condition called scurvy. Scurvy is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, loose teeth, poor wound healing, and easy bruising. The correct answer is 'Bleeding gums and loose teeth' because these are classic signs of scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency. Choice A ('Cracks at the corners of the mouth') is more indicative of a deficiency in B vitamins, specifically riboflavin. Choice B ('Altered mental status') is not typically associated with vitamin C deficiency but can occur with other conditions like vitamin B12 deficiency. Choice D ('Anorexia and diarrhea') are not common symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, as they are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal issues or deficiencies in different nutrients.
2. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen?
- A. Arrange for a friend to administer the medication on schedule.
- B. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications.
- C. Teach the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed.
- D. Arrange for a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen for a homeless patient with active tuberculosis. By arranging a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered, the nurse ensures that the patient is available to receive the medication and can directly observe the patient taking it. This method helps address the challenges faced by homeless individuals, such as lack of a stable living situation. The other options, such as having a friend administer the medication, giving written instructions, or educating about infecting others, may not be as effective in ensuring adherence, especially in the case of a homeless individual with alcoholism.
3. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?
- A. Detached Retina
- B. Fovea Centralis
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.
4. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?
- A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
- B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
- C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
- D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.
5. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
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