Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed a vitamin C deficiency. Which of the following symptoms might the nurse most likely see with this condition?

• A. Cracks at the corners of the mouth
• B. Altered mental status
• C. Bleeding gums and loose teeth
• D. Anorexia and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with a severe vitamin C deficiency has a condition called scurvy. Scurvy is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, loose teeth, poor wound healing, and easy bruising. The correct answer is 'Bleeding gums and loose teeth' because these are classic signs of scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency. Choice A ('Cracks at the corners of the mouth') is more indicative of a deficiency in B vitamins, specifically riboflavin. Choice B ('Altered mental status') is not typically associated with vitamin C deficiency but can occur with other conditions like vitamin B12 deficiency. Choice D ('Anorexia and diarrhea') are not common symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, as they are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal issues or deficiencies in different nutrients.

2. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate 76 bpm
• C. Urine output 50 ml/hour
• D. Respiratory rate 16 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.

3. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

• A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
• B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
• C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
• D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

5. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:

• A. Hypotriglyceridemia
• B. Abdominal hernia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Peritonitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.

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