a 37 year old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.

2. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.

3. A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain that this behavior is expected. During normal development, fear of strangers becomes prominent beginning around age 6-8 months. Such behaviors include clinging to parents, crying, and turning away from the stranger. These fears and behaviors extend into the toddler period and may persist into preschool. Changing client care assignments (Choice A) is not necessary as the child's behavior is developmentally appropriate. Discussing the appropriate use of 'time-out' (Choice C) is not relevant in this situation as the child is displaying normal attachment behavior, not misbehavior. Explaining that the child needs extra attention (Choice D) may not be necessary as the child is likely seeking comfort from the familiar presence of the mother, which is a typical response in a stressful situation like being in a hospital environment.

4. On her first visit to the neonatal intensive care unit to see her preterm newborn, the mother's only comment to the nurse is, 'My baby looks so fragile. Do you think my child will make it?' Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's response should aim to convey acceptance and encourage the mother to express her concerns. By saying, "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?", the nurse acknowledges the mother's feelings and prompts her to share her understanding, fostering further communication and addressing any misconceptions. Choices A and B dismiss the mother's concerns by making general statements and do not encourage dialogue. Choice D implies judgment and may deter the mother from opening up about her fears.

5. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.

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