a 30 year old woman has recently moved to the united states with her husband they are living with the womans sister until they can get a home of their
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

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1. A 30-year-old woman has recently moved to the United States with her husband. They are living with the woman’s sister until they can get a home of their own. When company arrives to visit the woman’s sister, the woman feels suddenly shy and retreats to the back bedroom to hide until the company leaves. She explains that her reaction to guests is simply because she does not know how to speak “perfect English.” What is this woman likely experiencing?

Correct answer: Culture shock

Rationale: The woman in the scenario is likely experiencing culture shock. Culture shock is a term used to describe the state of disorientation or inability to respond to the behavior of a different cultural group due to sudden strangeness, unfamiliarity, and incompatibility with the individual’s perceptions and expectations. In this case, the woman's feelings of shyness and retreating due to not feeling confident in speaking 'perfect English' align with symptoms of culture shock. The other choices are incorrect: Cultural taboos refer to behaviors or actions that are prohibited within a particular culture; cultural unfamiliarity suggests a lack of knowledge about a specific culture, which is not the case here; and culture disorientation is not a commonly used term in cultural psychology, making it an incorrect option.

2. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: Anxiety

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

3. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

Correct answer: lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

4. Efforts by healthcare facilities to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include an awareness of which of the following?

Correct answer: Joint Commission considers death or serious injury from HAIs a sentinel event.

Rationale: Efforts to reduce hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) involve being aware that the Joint Commission considers death or serious injury resulting from HAIs a sentinel event, which must be reported. While more than 20 states require reporting of HAI rates to the CDC, it is not a nationwide CDC requirement. The gastrointestinal tract is not a specific common site for HAIs; rather, bacteria are the primary cause. Ensuring restraints are properly secured is important for patient safety but not directly related to reducing HAIs.

5. A 75-year-old client, hospitalized with a cerebral vascular accident (stroke), becomes disoriented at times and tries to get out of bed but is unable to ambulate without help. What is the most appropriate safety measure?

Correct answer: Use a bed exit safety monitoring device

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate safety measure in this scenario. Using a bed exit safety monitoring device allows the client to retain some independence while ensuring that the nursing staff is alerted when assistance is needed. This solution promotes client safety without compromising their autonomy. Option A, restraining the client in bed, can lead to increased agitation, confusion, and a loss of independence. Option B, asking a family member to stay with the client, shifts the responsibility away from the healthcare team. Option C, checking the client every 15 minutes, is not a sufficient safety measure as the client could attempt to get out of bed in the unobserved interval, risking falls and injury.

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