Nursing Elites

1. When considering the structural organization of the human body, what is the basic unit of life?

• A. Chemicals
• B. Atoms
• C. Molecules
• D. Cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The basic unit of life is the cell. Cells are considered the fundamental unit of life because they are capable of carrying out all the processes necessary for life, such as growth, reproduction, responding to stimuli, and more. While chemicals, atoms, and molecules are essential components of cells and living organisms, they are not considered the basic unit of life. Chemicals are general substances, atoms are the smallest units of matter, and molecules are combinations of atoms. Therefore, the correct answer is cells, as they are the building blocks of all living organisms.

2. When assisting a client with shampooing his hair while he is still in bed, a nurse raises the bed to approximately the level of her waist. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. To prevent shampoo from getting into the client's eyes
• B. To allow excess water to run off the edge of the bed
• C. To decrease strain on the nurse's back
• D. To prevent the client's hair from developing tangles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raising the bed to the level of the nurse's waist while assisting a client with shampooing in bed is done to reduce strain on the nurse's back. This adjustment ensures that the nurse can work comfortably without excessive bending or stooping, thus preventing back injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While preventing shampoo from getting into the client's eyes, allowing excess water to run off the bed, and preventing hair tangles are important considerations, the primary rationale for raising the bed is to prioritize the nurse's ergonomic safety and prevent musculoskeletal strain.

3. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

• A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
• B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
• C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
• D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

4. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Assessing the patient for jaundice
• B. Providing oral hygiene after a meal
• C. Palpating the abdomen for distention
• D. Assisting the patient to choose the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing oral hygiene after a meal is an appropriate task to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. UAP can assist with basic personal care activities like oral hygiene. Assessing the patient for jaundice and palpating the abdomen for distention involve making clinical assessments that require a higher level of education and training, typically performed by licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/LVNs) or registered nurses (RNs). Assisting the patient to choose the diet also requires specialized knowledge and would be more appropriate for a nurse to address, considering the complexity of dietary requirements in cirrhosis.

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