Nursing Elites

1. A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?

• A. Focusing on the client's physical needs
• B. Encouraging the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss
• C. Reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again
• D. Encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. Which action often triggers an episode of violence or aggression in a patient with a psychiatric diagnosis involving violent behavior?

• A. Obtaining a history
• B. Asking for input into care
• C. Enforcing rules
• D. Taking a walk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enforcing rules is often a trigger for patients with psychiatric diagnoses involving violent behavior. Limit-setting or denying patient demands can be perceived as control and intimidation, leading to aggressive responses. Nursing staff must respond calmly and professionally to prevent escalation. Avoiding such patients or matching their emotions can worsen the situation. Therefore, enforcing rules can provoke violent episodes in these patients.

4. A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The young adult, at 20 years old, is in the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation according to Erikson's psychosocial theory. This stage typically occurs during young adulthood, between the ages of approximately 19 and 40. The primary conflict in this stage revolves around the development of intimate, loving relationships with others. This stage focuses on establishing close bonds and connections with others, seeking emotional closeness and commitment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage that occurs in infancy, Initiative vs. guilt is in early childhood, and Autonomy vs. shame is in toddlerhood. These stages each represent different developmental challenges and conflicts that individuals face at various points in their lives.

5. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Error in judgment
• C. Delusion of persecution
• D. Self-accusatory delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'

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