Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

2. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

3. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Administer PRN morphine.
• C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
• D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.

4. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?

• A. The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
• B. The client states 'I just can't get relief from my pain.'
• C. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
• D. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.

5. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

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