Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

2. Following surgery to correct cryptorchidism, what is the priority action that the nurse should include in the plan of care?

• A. Prevent tension on the suture.
• B. Monitor urine for glucose and acetone.
• C. Encourage oral fluids, and monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent tension on the suture. After surgery for cryptorchidism, the testicle is held in position by an internal suture that should not be dislodged. Immobilization of the area for a week is crucial to prevent complications like bleeding and infection. Monitoring urine for glucose and acetone is unrelated to this surgery. While maintaining hydration is important, forcing fluids is not necessary. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every hour may be a postoperative consideration, but it is not the priority for this specific surgery.

3. During an assessment of a child admitted to the hospital with a probable diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, what assessment findings should the nurse expect to observe? Select one that applies.

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased serum lipids
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, the hallmark finding is massive proteinuria due to increased glomerular permeability. This leads to hypoalbuminemia, resulting in generalized edema. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically seen due to fluid retention. Serum lipids are elevated, not decreased, in nephrotic syndrome. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome.

4. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?

• A. Reports of frothy stools and diarrhea
• B. Reports of foul-smelling ribbon stools
• C. Reports of profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting
• D. Reports of diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.

5. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

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