Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

2. What is the minimum amount of personal protective equipment for a nurse when working with a newborn immediately after a high-risk delivery in a client's room?

• A. Sterile gown, gloves
• B. Mask, gown, shoe covers
• C. Gloves
• D. Hat, mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gloves. When attending a high-risk delivery and handling a newborn immediately after birth, the minimum personal protective equipment required for a nurse includes gloves. This is essential to protect the nurse from potential exposure to the mother's blood or body fluids that may be present on the newborn's skin. Choices A, B, and D include additional protective equipment that is not necessary for this specific scenario. Wearing gloves is crucial for infection control and to prevent the transmission of pathogens.

3. Mr. Thomas is a well-groomed 68-year-old male patient who had prostate surgery two days ago. He has an indwelling catheter and a urinary drainage bag. You have weighed him at 9 am each morning for 3 mornings in a row. Today, on the 4th day, his morning weight is 3 pounds more than it was the day before. Why could he have gained these 3 pounds in one day, on a 1000 calorie diet?

• A. It is obvious that his visitors have been sneaking him junk food from the local fast-food restaurant.
• B. It may be that his urinary drainage bag was not emptied today and it was emptied on previous days.
• C. It is obvious that the scale is broken and it should be replaced immediately to prevent these false weights.
• D. A 3-pound weight gain is not significant enough to question and should just be noted.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the weight gain may be due to the urinary drainage bag not being emptied today, while it was emptied on previous days. This scenario is common and can lead to an increase in weight that is not related to food intake. Choice A is incorrect because assuming visitors are sneaking junk food is speculative and not based on facts. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the scale is broken. Choice D is incorrect because any unexplained weight gain should be investigated further, even if it seems insignificant at first.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

• A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
• B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
• C. Should be firmly held against the person's skin to block out low-pitched sounds
• D. Should be lightly held against the person's skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.

5. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

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