Nursing Elites

1. Which patient poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant?

• A. The patient with chronic pancreatitis
• B. The patient currently infected with a respiratory virus
• C. The patient with a healing leg wound
• D. The patient with a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with a healing leg wound poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. Chronic pancreatitis can lead to complications such as infections that can pose a risk to immunosuppressed individuals. Patients infected with respiratory viruses or urinary tract infections are actively infectious, which can put immunosuppressed patients at a higher risk of acquiring infections. Therefore, the patient with a healing leg wound is the least likely to pose an immediate infection risk.

2. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

3. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

4. The mother of a child with hepatitis A tells the home care nurse that she is concerned because the child's jaundice seems worse. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You need to change the child's diet.
• B. The child probably is infectious again.
• C. The jaundice may worsen before it resolves.
• D. You need to call the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to explain to the mother that jaundice may seem to worsen before it eventually gets better. This is a common occurrence in hepatitis A. Option A about changing the child's diet is irrelevant to the concern raised by the mother and not supported by evidence. Option B suggesting the child is infectious again is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm as jaundice does not indicate reinfection. Option D, advising the mother to call the primary health care provider, is premature as the nurse can first provide education and reassurance regarding the expected course of jaundice in hepatitis A.

5. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Angina
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.

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