NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. The nurse transcribes the postoperative prescriptions for a client who returns to the unit following surgery and notes that an antihypertensive medication that was prescribed preoperatively is not listed. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication.
- B. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively.
- C. Withhold the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable.
- D. Contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has noted that an antihypertensive medication prescribed preoperatively is missing from the postoperative prescriptions. It is essential to renew preoperative medications postoperatively. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the antihypertensive medication. Consulting with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication is not appropriate in this situation as pharmacists do not prescribe or renew medications. Administering the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively without a current prescription poses a risk to the client's safety. Withholding the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable does not address the issue of the missing prescription and delays the client's necessary treatment.
2. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
3. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
4. At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?
- A. ''I give myself insulin injections in my thighs.''
- B. ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.''
- C. ''Here are my glucose readings that I noted on my calendar.''
- D. ''If I bathe more than once a week, my skin feels too dry.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the client states, ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.'' This statement indicates peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to a lack of sensation in the lower extremities. When clients are unable to feel pressure or pain in their feet, they are at a high risk for skin impairment, such as cuts, wounds, or ulcers. Option A is not directly related to impaired skin integrity, as self-administering insulin in the thighs does not pose a direct risk to skin integrity. Option C shows good glucose monitoring, which is important but does not directly indicate impaired skin integrity. Option D suggests dry skin due to infrequent bathing, which is more related to general skin care and not as predictive of impaired skin integrity as the statement in Option B.
5. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
- D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
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