Nursing Elites

1. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: Place the client in a side-lying position.

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

3. When assessing the mental status of a young school-aged child, which action would be important for the nurse to take?

• A. Listen to the parents’ description of the child’s behavior.
• B. Compare the child’s function from one occasion to another.
• C. Engage the parents in a discussion about the child’s feelings.
• D. Determine the child’s mental status through direct questioning.

Correct answer: Compare the child’s function from one occasion to another.

Rationale: To accurately assess the mental status of a young school-aged child, it is crucial for the nurse to compare the child’s function over time. This approach allows for a more objective evaluation of the child's mental status. While listening to the parents’ description of the child’s behavior can provide valuable insights, it may be biased and subjective. Engaging parents in discussions about the child’s feelings is important for overall understanding but may not directly assess the child's mental status. Directly questioning the child about their mental status can be threatening and may lead to anxiety, making it a less optimal approach compared to observing and comparing the child's function over time.

4. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?

• A. Change in femininity
• B. Body image changes
• C. Diminished sexual desire
• D. Slow recovery

Correct answer: Change in femininity

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.

5. What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?

• A. Scheduling pain medication at regular intervals
• B. Administering the medication only when the pain is severe
• C. Avoiding the administration of medication unless it is requested
• D. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with other women in labor

Correct answer: Scheduling pain medication at regular intervals

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.

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