Nursing Elites

1. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

2. Which behavior would the nurse recognize as developmentally atypical in preschoolers?

• A. Thumb sucking during stress
• B. Feeling guilty for behaving inappropriately
• C. Feeling happy if there is a newborn in the family
• D. Curiosity about their surroundings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is feeling happy if there is a newborn in the family. Preschoolers are more likely to exhibit feelings of stress and jealousy rather than happiness with the arrival of a new baby in the family. Thumb sucking and bed-wetting are common behaviors displayed by preschoolers during times of stress. Guilt typically arises in children when they perceive that they have not behaved appropriately. Preschoolers are known to be naturally curious about their surroundings, showing an interest in exploring and learning about the environment around them. Therefore, feeling happy with the birth of a new baby is developmentally atypical for preschoolers.

3. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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