Free Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale (NCLEX RN). Answer 38 nursing exam-style questions with rationales
A woman has died as a result of a motor vehicle accident. She is listed as an organ donor, and her family is considering whether to comply with her wishes. Which of the following is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases where a deceased person is listed as an organ donor, the family may have the final say on whether to proceed with organ donation, even if the individual had expressed their wish to donate. Physicians may prioritize the emotional well-being of the family over the wishes of the deceased, especially if organ donation could cause additional distress or trauma to the grieving family members. Therefore, it is possible for physicians to respect the family's decision not to proceed with organ donation, even if the deceased had previously expressed the desire to donate. This decision-making process underscores the importance of considering and respecting the perspectives and emotions of both the deceased individual and their surviving family members in organ donation scenarios.
A client in the emergency room enters the care area to start an IV. He finds a man sitting on the table, hunched over, and attempting to take deep breaths. He states, 'my chest hurts so much!' His wife is sitting on a chair in the corner, crying. Which of the following is the first action of the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the above scenario, the first action of the nurse should be to assess the client's airway and breathing. It is crucial to address respiratory status first, as the client appears to be experiencing difficulty breathing. Providing oxygen if necessary can help support oxygenation and alleviate potential respiratory distress. Administering medication for chest pain or starting an IV can come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Talking with the client's wife, though important for emotional support, is not the priority when the client's respiratory status needs to be assessed and managed promptly.
A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic charting program for the nursing staff to use. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using electronic charting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A significant disadvantage of implementing a new electronic charting program is the potential for complexity and difficulty in implementation. Introducing a new system requires time and education for staff to adapt and use it appropriately. Users may experience confusion as they learn to navigate the new charting techniques, which can impact workflow efficiency and accuracy. Option A is incorrect because electronic charting systems are designed to enhance data security and integrity, reducing the risk of information being lost or misused. Option B is incorrect as access control mechanisms can restrict who can view specific patient records. Option C is incorrect as electronic charting systems often facilitate communication between healthcare providers by providing real-time access to patient information.
A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.
Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.
What might be signaled when a client tells the nurse to 'pray for me' and entrusts her wedding ring to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client entrusting the wedding ring and asking the nurse to pray for them can be indicative of suicidal ideation. This behavior suggests a deep level of distress and hopelessness, potentially leading to suicidal thoughts or actions. While anxiety is a common emotion, the act of entrusting personal items and making requests like praying for them go beyond typical anxiety symptoms. Major depression can be associated with suicidal ideation, but the specific actions described in this scenario point more towards suicidal thoughts. Hopelessness, while related to suicidal ideation, is a broader concept that does not capture the specific cues given by the client in this scenario, making it a less accurate choice.
Who among the following individuals wrote a medical code of ethics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All of the above individuals contributed to the development of medical ethics. Hammurabi created the earliest known code around 2500 BC. Hippocrates, known for the principle 'Do no harm,' emphasized ethical practices in medicine. Thomas Percival, a physician interested in sociological medicine, authored a Code of Medical Ethics in 1803, which influenced modern medical ethics. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually wrote a medical code of ethics, making 'All of the above' the most inclusive and accurate answer.
Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.
Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
The family of a patient who is receiving therapeutic hypothermia states they do not understand why the patient is being kept so cold. What objective information can you provide to help address their concerns?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing research-based information about the benefits of therapeutic hypothermia for their loved one will provide evidence that this is an established therapy with generally positive outcomes. Families are certainly not expected to be familiar with critical care interventions, and their concerns should be addressed with evidence-based data whenever possible. Option A is not appropriate as sharing patient information violates privacy laws and does not address the family's concerns directly. Option C may not directly provide the detailed information the family needs to understand therapeutic hypothermia. Option D involves unnecessary escalation by immediately involving the physician, when providing education and information should be the initial step in addressing the family's concerns.
Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.
Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.
Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.
A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.
As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.
Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
You are taking care of Mary Eden, an elderly and frail 91-year-old resident. She gets confused during evening hours and at times she thinks that she hears her daughter calling her from the other side of the nursing home. Which physical problem places Mary Eden at risk for falls?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mary Eden's frail and weak muscles due to her age and physical condition place her at risk for falls. While her confusion can contribute to falls, it is considered an emotional or cognitive issue rather than a physical problem. Her daughter and the evening hours are not physical problems that directly increase her risk of falling.
A victim of a gunshot wound to the abdomen has been admitted to the hospital, accompanied by a police officer. When questioned, the officer states that the patient is a suspect in a homicide, which occurred as part of the same incident. A small child was killed as the result of a stray bullet. The patient is combative, yells that he's in pain and demands medication. What is your most appropriate response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate and caring response is to perform a pain assessment and administer the pain medication that has been ordered. Regardless of personal feelings about any given situation, the nurse's responsibility is to provide unbiased, appropriate, and supportive care, as stated in the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics. Choice A is not appropriate as it disregards the patient's immediate need for pain relief. Choice B may escalate the situation and is not the priority in this case. Choice D is not the immediate action needed to address the patient's pain and distress.
Jack is a 2-month-old with a diagnosis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type I. He has been admitted to the hospital for progressive respiratory difficulty. His parents have been informed that if he is not placed on ventilatory support, he will continue to decompensate and die of respiratory failure. Jack's physician discusses the poor prognosis of Jack's condition, and tells the parents that he will not be able to be removed from ventilatory support once it is initiated, due to his progressive neurological disease. After much discussion, the parents have decided to decline ventilatory support, agree to a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, and request hospice care for Jack. Another parent heard them discussing Jack's situation in the waiting room and says she could never do that to her baby. What is the most appropriate response to this parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In healthcare settings, privacy regulations prevent professionals from discussing patient situations with individuals not involved in that patient's care. Maintaining patient confidentiality is crucial to protect sensitive information. In this scenario, sharing details about Jack's situation with the parent who overheard the conversation would breach confidentiality. It is important to handle such situations delicately, especially in emotional environments like intensive care unit waiting rooms. While empathy and support are essential, it is equally crucial to respect patient privacy and confidentiality. Therefore, responding with 'I can't discuss another patient's situation' is the most appropriate and professional response in this context.
Which risk factor places patients and residents at the greatest risk for falls?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Old age is a significant risk factor for falls as elderly individuals are more prone to falls due to factors like decreased balance, muscle strength, and vision. Middle age is less associated with falls compared to old age. Pneumonia and COPD are medical conditions that are not direct risk factors for falls, unlike aging which significantly increases the risk of falls.
A client with asthma is being admitted for breathing difficulties. His arterial blood gas results are pH 7.26, PCO2 49, PaO2 90, and HCO3- 21. Which of the following best describes this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this case, the client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.26 and a PCO2 of 49, both of which are abnormal. A pH below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 indicates acidosis. The elevated PCO2 of 49 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the primary issue. The normal range for PCO2 is 35-45 mmHg, so a value of 49 indicates the retention of excess CO2, leading to acidosis. The low HCO3- level of 21 also supports the presence of metabolic acidosis; however, the primary abnormality is respiratory, making this an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.' Choice B, 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect because the client's pH is acidic, not alkalotic. Additionally, there is no compensation occurring for the primary respiratory acidosis indicated by the elevated PCO2. Choice C, 'Uncompensated metabolic acidosis,' is incorrect because while the HCO3- level is low, the primary issue indicated by the elevated PCO2 is respiratory acidosis. Choice D, 'Compensated metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect since the arterial blood gas results do not support a metabolic alkalosis. The low HCO3- level would typically be seen in metabolic acidosis, but in this case, the primary issue is respiratory acidosis.
A complication of osteoporosis is _______________?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Joint deformity is a well-known complication of osteoporosis, leading to structural changes in the joints due to bone loss and fragility. Gouty arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are distinct types of arthritis that are not direct complications of osteoporosis. Dorsiflexion is a movement related to the foot's range of motion and is not a typical complication of osteoporosis.
Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
Which technological advance is MOST likely to place you at risk for HIPAA violations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Social media. Social media platforms such as Facebook can significantly put you at risk for HIPAA violations. It is crucial to never share any patient-related information or comments on social media websites, as this breaches patient confidentiality and violates HIPAA regulations. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to directly lead to HIPAA violations. Word processing programs and spreadsheets are commonly used for documentation and data organization, focusing more on internal operations and not on external sharing of sensitive information that can compromise patient confidentiality. Cloud storage services (Clouds and SOEs) are designed for secure data storage and sharing within regulated environments, and HIPAA compliance can be maintained if used appropriately. However, social media's open and unsecured nature makes it a higher risk for HIPAA violations compared to the other technological advances mentioned.
A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.
Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.
A client has volunteered to take part in a research study. After participating for two months, he decides that he can no longer tolerate the study and decides to leave. What are the client's rights in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client voluntarily participates in a research study and later decides to withdraw, they have the right to be released from the study without any liability. It is unethical to force a participant to continue in a study against their will as this violates their autonomy and personal rights. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests that the client must reimburse the researchers for charges incurred, which is not typically the case unless agreed upon beforehand. Choice C is incorrect as there is no standard practice prohibiting a participant from future studies just because they withdrew from a current one. Choice D is incorrect because participants always have the right to withdraw from a research study at any time.
The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis, it is important for the infected individual to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Sleeping alone in a separate room, like the guest bedroom, is an effective measure. The other choices are not ideal: Choice A is incorrect because spending time outdoors is encouraged for ventilation; Choice C is incorrect as using public transportation increases the risk of transmission; Choice D is incorrect because keeping windows closed limits ventilation, which is necessary to reduce the concentration of infectious particles in the air.
Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.
The nurse is performing discharge teaching for Mrs. S after cardiac angioplasty. Her husband is present for the teaching. While explaining the prescription for antiplatelet medication to use at home, Mrs. S's husband states, 'I don't think I can afford to refill that medication.' What is the most appropriate response of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to offer assistance in exploring more affordable medication options. It is important to address the patient's concerns about medication costs to ensure adherence to the treatment plan. By suggesting to ask the physician if a more affordable alternative is available, the nurse shows understanding and a commitment to helping the patient access necessary medications. Choice A is incorrect because assuming insurance coverage without verifying can lead to false expectations. Choice C is incorrect as Medicare eligibility and assistance may not be applicable in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the financial concern raised by the husband and emphasizes the importance of the medication without offering a practical solution to affordability.
All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. The best way to achieve this goal is to ________________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated by JCAHO and state departments of health to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. This does not mean that no restraints can ever be used under any circumstances. The goal is to minimize the use of restraints and prioritize other preventive measures. Restraining a patient should only be considered when all other preventive strategies have failed, and the patient is at risk of harm. Therefore, the best approach is to limit the use of restraints to situations where falls cannot be prevented, ensuring that restraints are used as a last resort to maintain patient safety. Choices C and D are not ideal solutions as they do not address the appropriate use of restraints in a restraint-free environment.
A patient diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided by the center includes
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on the management of symptoms and medication. For a patient with a mild anxiety disorder, the primary focus would be on providing medical management of symptoms, such as prescribing appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness. Daily psychotherapy is not typically provided in community mental health centers for mild cases, as it may not be necessary. Constant staff supervision and psychological stabilization are more suited for patients requiring a higher level of care or in acute settings where continuous monitoring and stabilization are essential.
A nurse is asked to perform a task that she believes is outside her scope of practice. What is the appropriate response to this issue?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When faced with a task that a nurse believes may be beyond their scope of practice, it is essential to refer to the state's specific scope of practice standards for nurses. This step is crucial as these standards can vary between states, providing clarity on what tasks are permissible. By reviewing these standards, the nurse can determine if the task falls within their scope of practice. Contacting the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense (Choice A) is premature and should only be considered if there is a serious violation after reviewing the scope of practice. Asking another nurse to perform the task (Choice C) does not address the issue of clarifying the scope of practice. Contacting the house supervisor (Choice D) may be necessary if the nurse cannot determine the appropriateness of the task based on the scope of practice standards.
You are caring for an infant who is just about 12 months old. Which assessment data is normal for the infant at this age?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant has doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age. The mother's reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight and the fact that the infant had grown ¼ inch since last month are not normal assessment data. Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to 100 mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of an inch until the infant is one year of age. Similarly, the height or length of the newborn increases an inch a month for the first 6 months and then 1/2 inch a month until the infant is 1 year of age.
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.
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