Free Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 78 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam
You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.
What kind of preventive measures is MOST likely to be used to prevent Mary Eden from falling due to her muscular frailty?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mary Eden, due to her muscular frailty, is at risk of falling. The most effective preventive measure in this case would be physical therapy focusing on muscle strengthening exercises. Strengthening exercises can help improve her muscle tone and stability, reducing the risk of falls. While range of motion exercises may be beneficial, they may not directly address her muscular frailty and stability concerns as effectively as muscle strengthening exercises. Occupational therapy aims to help individuals with activities of daily living and functional tasks, not confusion. Medications to induce more sleep can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential side effects like dizziness or disorientation, rather than preventing falls.
Mobility is an important human function. The hazards of immobility lead to many physical and emotional problems. Immobility can lead to detrimental cardiac, muscular, respiratory, skeletal, urinary, gastrointestinal, skin, and emotional changes. Which of the following is an example of a skeletal hazard of immobility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All choices are hazards of immobility, but only calcium loss from the bones is a skeletal system impairment that results from immobility. Contractures are muscle shortening due to prolonged positioning, which affects the muscular system. Constipation is a gastrointestinal issue. Catabolism is a metabolic process, not specific to the skeletal system.
What ethical principle has led to the need for informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Autonomy is the ethical principle that emphasizes an individual's right to make their own decisions if they are mentally competent. Informed consent is a direct result of this principle, as it ensures that patients are fully informed before agreeing to any medical intervention. Autonomy is crucial in healthcare as it respects patients' rights and promotes self-determination. Justice, fidelity, and beneficence are important ethical principles in healthcare, but they do not directly lead to the need for informed consent. Justice focuses on fairness and equal treatment, fidelity on trustworthiness and loyalty, and beneficence on doing good for the patient's benefit.
Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.
Because of budget cuts in the hospital, the nursing manager informs the staff that they must either rotate to other units more often or take their turns staying home from work. Which principle is this nurse manager demonstrating?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Veracity involves truth-telling, even in challenging situations. In this scenario, the nurse manager is being transparent about the need for staff to rotate units or take turns staying home due to budget cuts. This allows the staff to make informed decisions about their work schedules and potential impact on their pay and work areas. Option A, Justice, does not apply as the focus is on communication and transparency, not fairness. Option B, Paternalism, does not fit as it involves decisions made for others' well-being without their input, which is not the case here. Option D, Fraternity, pertains to unity among individuals, which is not the principle demonstrated by the nurse manager in this situation.
The priority goal for a family who practices Chinese medicine would be to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Chinese medicine, the concept of yin and yang represents the balance of opposing forces in the body. When there is an imbalance between yin and yang, it can result in illness. Therefore, the priority goal for a family practicing Chinese medicine would be to restore the harmony and balance between yin and yang. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority goal in Chinese medicine. While achieving harmony, maintaining a balance of energy, and respecting life are important aspects of Chinese medicine, the fundamental principle revolves around maintaining the equilibrium of yin and yang for optimal health.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.
Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.
The key to the prevention of a pandemic influenza is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The key to preventing a pandemic influenza is early detection. Detecting influenza cases early allows for timely public health responses to limit the spread of the virus. Early detection helps in implementing measures such as isolation, treatment, and vaccination to prevent the development of a full-blown pandemic. Antibiotics are not effective against influenza viruses, so early antibiotic treatment is not the key to prevention. While vaccination of at-risk populations is important in controlling the spread of influenza, early detection is crucial as it allows for timely implementation of vaccination strategies. Isolation of suspected cases is a containment measure rather than a prevention strategy; the key to prevention lies in early detection to stop the spread before it becomes a pandemic.
The client has a long leg cast. During discharge teaching about appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should recommend isometric exercises for the muscles of the casted extremity. Isometric exercises involve contracting and relaxing muscles without moving the affected part. This type of exercise helps maintain muscle strength without moving the joint, which is important for clients with immobilized extremities. Range of motion exercises involve moving the joint through its full range of motion, which may not be suitable for a client with a long leg cast. Aerobic exercises focus on increasing cardiovascular endurance and may not be appropriate for a client with a casted extremity. Isotonic exercises involve muscle contractions with movement, which may not be safe for the affected extremity in a cast.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.
While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child's developmental needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: "I understand the need to use those new skills."? This response indicates that the mother recognizes the importance of allowing the toddler to practice and develop new skills, supporting autonomy and exploration. Setting limits, protecting from falls, and intending to keep control go against the toddler's developmental needs. Toddlers at this stage require opportunities to explore, practice new skills, and gain independence to foster healthy development.
When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
The nurse is providing disease prevention education to a 63-year-old woman with a negative family history of breast cancer. The nurse recommends the patient schedule mammograms with which frequency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mammograms, along with breast self-examinations and other routine tests, are key for the early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer. All major societies (WHO, ACS, USPSTF) recommend a screening mammogram every two years in women of this age at average risk of breast cancer. The recommended frequency may change if there are identified family history and significant risk factors. Choosing 'Once a year' is too frequent and not aligned with current guidelines. Opting for 'Every 5 years' or 'Every 10 years' intervals is not adequate for regular breast cancer screening and may increase the risk of cancer progression. Therefore, 'Every other year' is the most appropriate choice for this patient without a family history of breast cancer.
Richard is a 72-year-old with stage 4 lung cancer who has been admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. He is alert and oriented and states he would like to sign a do not resuscitate (DNR) order. His wife enters the room after he has signed it and is very upset that he has made this decision without discussing it with her. She wants to know what she can do to get the DNR reversed. What should your first response be?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response in this situation is to offer caring support for both parties. Richard, being alert and oriented, has the right to make his own decisions, including signing a do not resuscitate (DNR) order. It is important to respect his autonomy while also acknowledging his wife's feelings. By offering caring support, the nurse can facilitate a discussion between Richard and his wife, helping them navigate their emotions and decisions. Contacting the unit manager or hospital's attorney would not be appropriate as the initial response. These actions may escalate the situation and are not focused on addressing the emotional needs of the couple. Trying to talk Richard out of his decision would disregard his autonomy and right to make choices about his own care, which goes against ethical principles of patient autonomy and informed decision-making.
The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.
Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
A nurse is assigned to care for a deaf client. During her lunch hour, she visits the hospital library and reads more about deaf culture in order to better provide appropriate care for her client. This action is an example of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cultural knowledge involves seeking information and educating oneself about different cultural groups. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating cultural knowledge by learning more about deaf culture to improve the care provided to the deaf client. This proactive approach helps in understanding the client's background, beliefs, and communication preferences, leading to better outcomes. 'Cultural noise' and 'Cultural divide' are incorrect as they do not reflect the nurse's positive action of seeking knowledge to enhance care. 'Cultural diversity' is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe the nurse's specific action of acquiring knowledge about a particular culture.
What is involved in obtaining informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.
Which of the following is an example of a living will?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.
An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse, will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks to reduce exposure to inhaled dust, which is a significant risk factor for lung disease. Teaching about symptoms of lung disease, treating workers with pulmonary fibrosis, and monitoring for coughing and wheezing are important actions for early recognition and treatment of lung disease. However, the most effective strategy to prevent lung damage in this scenario is to require the use of protective equipment to minimize exposure to harmful substances.
Which of the following clients have barriers to accessing healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All of the provided clients have barriers to accessing healthcare. Clients with physical limitations, such as the 36-year-old client using a wheelchair, may face challenges in mobility and accessing healthcare facilities. The 44-year-old client from India visiting the United States on a visa may encounter barriers related to language, cultural differences, or insurance coverage. The 81-year-old client who is unable to drive may struggle with transportation to healthcare appointments. Therefore, all three clients face different barriers to accessing healthcare, making 'All of the above' the correct answer.
A nurse is assisting a pregnant client who is having an amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates the correct teaching for this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An amniocentesis is performed to draw amniotic luid from the sac around the fetus during pregnancy. It may be analyzed for certain disorders or complications associated with pregnancy. Following the procedure, the nurse should wash the client's abdomen and place a small bandage over the puncture site
A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.
A nurse is required to float to another unit within the hospital where he is asked to care for a client on a ventilator. The nurse is uncomfortable with this assignment, as he has not had a ventilated client since nursing school. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When floating to another unit and asked to take an assignment that falls outside a nurse's comfort zone, the nurse should notify the area supervisor of the level of discomfort and request a different assignment. Caring for ventilated clients typically falls within the scope of nursing practice; however, discomfort with the situation may not necessarily be overcome by accepting the assignment. Alternatively, the effects could be harmful to the client if the nurse is unfamiliar with this type of care. Requesting a different assignment is the most appropriate response in this situation, ensuring patient safety and the nurse's comfort level. Stating that the client's needs are outside the nurse's scope of practice (Choice B) may not be accurate, as caring for ventilated clients usually falls within the scope of nursing practice. Accepting the assignment (Choice C) without addressing the discomfort may compromise patient safety. Requesting to return to the home unit (Choice D) does not address the immediate need of caring for the ventilated client and may delay appropriate care.
Which method is most appropriate for managing moral distress in the workplace?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Moral distress involves negative feelings or frustration toward situations that are deemed unfair, unethical, or that cause the nurse to feel helpless in their work. It can lead to nurse burnout when ongoing issues are not resolved. The most appropriate method for managing moral distress is to develop new policies that address the problematic situations. By creating policies, nurses can work towards changing current standards and reducing the number of situations that lead to moral distress. Choices A and B are incorrect because recognizing life's unfairness and not taking action on unjustifiable requests do not actively address the root causes of moral distress or work towards resolving the issues.
A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.
Upon admission to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center, what is the primary action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is admitted to a stroke care unit in a rehabilitation center, the nurse's initial priority is to assess the client. This assessment includes identifying relevant health history data that may impact the client's care. By recognizing the client's current needs and limitations, the nurse can develop a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition. This information is crucial for generating a nursing diagnosis and establishing appropriate care outcomes. While collecting and organizing documents for the medical record, preparing identification bracelets, and securing valuables are important tasks, they are not the primary actions that directly influence the client's immediate care upon admission.
In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.
The chain of infection includes the ________________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The chain, or cycle, of infection includes the germ (microorganism), agent, reservoir, exit portal, mode of transmission, entry port, and susceptible host. This sequence describes how infections are passed from one person to another. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to types of immunity, not components of the chain of infection. Choice C is also incorrect as it lists terms unrelated to the chain of infection. Choice D is incorrect as it describes transmission types, not components of the chain of infection. Understanding the chain of infection is crucial in preventing the spread of infections by breaking one or more links in the chain, such as interrupting the mode of transmission through proper hand hygiene.
Ruth is a 72-year-old patient who has been upset and crying all morning. When asked why she is upset, she turns toward the wall in silence. What collaborative process may be helpful in caring for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Collaborating with the patient care technician is an appropriate approach in this scenario. Patient care technicians and nurses' aides often provide direct care to patients, developing a closer relationship with them. Patients may feel more comfortable sharing their feelings with these caregivers compared to other healthcare professionals. In this situation, Ruth's distress appears more emotional than spiritual, making it more suitable to speak with someone directly involved in her care. Calling the chaplain (Choice B) might not directly address Ruth's immediate emotional needs as it could focus more on spiritual support. Involving the social worker (Choice C) could help address underlying emotional or social issues, but speaking with the patient care technician is a more direct and immediate step to assess and provide initial support. Calling the patient's husband (Choice D) may not address Ruth's immediate emotional distress and may not be appropriate without understanding the root cause of her upset.
How do technological advances relate to HIPAA?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations. For instance, leaving a computer screen unattended and visible to unauthorized individuals can result in breaches of patient confidentiality, leading to HIPAA violations. While computers can indeed aid in sharing information, this is not directly related to HIPAA compliance. Ensuring that computer screens are only visible to authorized personnel is a good practice, but it does not address the broader risks and challenges posed by technological advancements in maintaining HIPAA compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is that technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.
A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
Which of the following is an example of low health literacy skills?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Low health literacy skills are exemplified by an individual's inability to comprehend health-related information. In this scenario, a client's inability to read an admission form to sign it indicates low health literacy. This lack of understanding can hinder their ability to make informed decisions about their healthcare. The other choices involve healthcare professionals and their knowledge or skills, not the health literacy of individuals seeking care.
What is a key principle of patient teaching that must take place to ensure patient safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A key principle of patient teaching that ensures patient safety is the confirmation of understanding. To ensure patient safety, it is crucial to confirm that the patient comprehends the information provided. This confirmation can be achieved by having the patient repeat back the information or demonstrate understanding through return demonstration. Documenting the patient's understanding is essential to track the effectiveness of the teaching session and ensure that the patient is equipped with the necessary knowledge for their safety. Family members being present or having multiple staff members provide teaching may be beneficial in certain situations, but the primary focus should be on confirming the patient's understanding to enhance safety and promote effective learning.
A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.
Who owns a patient's x-rays?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.
A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
Plantar flexion can be prevented with ________________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Plantar flexion, or foot drop, can be prevented with foot boards, special splints, and range of motion exercises. Foot boards help maintain the foot in a neutral position, preventing contractures and deformities. Foot soaks (choice A) may help with foot hygiene but do not directly prevent plantar flexion. Toenail care (choice C) is important for overall foot health but does not prevent plantar flexion. Proper shoes (choice D) are essential for foot support and comfort but do not specifically prevent plantar flexion.
An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.
According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.
A healthcare professional is preparing to draw a blood specimen from an adult client's central line. All of the following actions for this procedure are correct EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When drawing a blood specimen from a central line, the healthcare professional should disconnect any infusions that are currently running and that could contaminate the specimen. It is important to use a minimum size of a 10 cc syringe when using a central line to avoid placing too much pressure on the catheter. Cleaning the cap with alcohol and attaching a 5 cc syringe is not appropriate as a larger syringe size should be used for this procedure. Drawing 5 cc of a blood sample to discard and flushing with saline after the sample are correct steps in the process of drawing a blood specimen from a central line.
Albert B. is incontinent of urine. He also wears glasses and hearing aids. His ____________lead(s) to his risk for falls.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Albert B. is at risk for falls due to two factors: his incontinence and his loss of vision. Loss of vision significantly impairs one's ability to navigate and avoid obstacles, thereby increasing the risk of falls. While incontinence is a risk factor for falls, the primary concern in this case is the loss of vision since it directly affects balance and safety. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of vision.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the key factor of impaired vision leading to the risk of falls.
Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.
The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.
A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.
A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Polyuria is a crucial early indication of lithium toxicity. It results from the drug's effect on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This is a significant symptom to monitor as it can indicate potential toxicity. Constipation, rash, and tinnitus are not typically associated with early indications of lithium toxicity. Constipation is more commonly seen as a side effect of some medications, while rash and tinnitus are not specific indicators of lithium toxicity.
A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.
A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).
Elderly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly ___________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elderly patients are prone to dehydration because they have a lower and diminished sense of thirst. This reduced sensation of thirst makes them less likely to drink an adequate amount of fluids, leading to dehydration. While it is true that elderly individuals may also have changes such as decreased stomach mucus production and saliva production, these factors do not directly contribute to dehydration. Drinking more coffee and tea, as mentioned in choice A, is not a consistent behavior among all elderly individuals and is not a primary reason for their increased risk of dehydration.
If you are caring for a patient of the Hindu culture, what may you anticipate regarding visitors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Hindu culture, there is a strong sense of community and support. It is common for a patient to receive a large number of visitors, indicative of the community coming together to provide emotional and practical support. This support network is crucial for the patient's well-being and healing process. Option A, limited visitors, is incorrect as the Hindu culture values community involvement. Option B, family members only, is incorrect as the support network extends beyond just family. Option D, none of the above, is incorrect as the Hindu culture typically involves community support and a significant number of visitors.
Gio told his nurse that the FBI is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been placed in the unit walls. Which action would be the most therapeutic response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most therapeutic response in this situation is to acknowledge Gio's feelings of fear and validate his experience by expressing empathy ('this must seem frightening to him'). By reassuring Gio that he is safe in the current environment, the nurse can help reduce his anxiety and build trust. Choice A is not recommended as directly confronting delusional beliefs may lead to increased distress and resistance. Choice C delays addressing Gio's concerns and may not provide immediate support. Choice D of isolating Gio can worsen his feelings of paranoia and distrust in the treatment setting.
A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
You have noticed that the last several patients you have cared for have had questionable blood pressure readings from their arterial lines. When checked against cuff pressures, a discrepancy has been noted, and further investigation has revealed faulty transducers. This is not the first product issue with this company. What positive step could you take to help resolve this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Forming a peer workgroup to evaluate new products would be an excellent opportunity for collaboration among peers, management, and the purchasing department. When clinicians are engaged to work toward solutions that address patient care issues, they experience more empowerment and control over their work environments. Choice A is incorrect because using old stock from a previous company does not address the root cause of the faulty transducers from the current company. Choice B is incorrect as verifying cuff pressures every hour does not directly address the issue of faulty transducers. Choice C is less effective than forming a peer workgroup as it involves only notifying the risk manager without involving a collaborative effort to resolve the product issue.
Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.
A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'A young woman.' Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is often associated with rheumatologic disorders like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. This disorder involves vasospasm of the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes. Typically, Raynaud's affects the fingers, and in some cases, it can affect the toes. Only rarely does it involve other body parts such as the nose, ears, nipples, and lips. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as Raynaud's disease predominantly affects young women, although it can occur in other demographic groups as well.
Becky is a 17-year-old type I diabetic who has been admitted for her third episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) since being diagnosed last year. She states that she hates feeling different from her friends and refuses to take her insulin as recommended. What would be the most helpful action for Becky?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Contacting the local support group for diabetic teens would be the most helpful action for Becky. By reaching out to see if another diabetic teenager could provide support, Becky would have the opportunity to connect with someone in her peer group who faces similar challenges. This connection can help reduce her sense of isolation and the feeling of being 'different.' Choice A, 'Scolding her for not taking her insulin,' is inappropriate and could further alienate Becky. It does not address the underlying emotional issues driving her behavior. Choice B, 'Recommending that she use an insulin pump,' does not directly address Becky's emotional struggle with feeling different from her friends. While an insulin pump may be a helpful tool, it does not tackle the root cause of her non-compliance. Choice D, 'Telling her parents they must provide more strict oversight,' focuses on imposing stricter control without addressing Becky's emotional needs or offering peer support, which may not be effective in improving her insulin adherence in the long term.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8°F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
Which of the following situations might warrant a laboratory magnesium level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ulcerative colitis can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. This condition may impact the absorption of certain nutrients, including magnesium. Therefore, patients with chronic gastrointestinal conditions like ulcerative colitis should be screened for electrolyte imbalances related to impaired digestion. Hyperthyroidism, arthritis, and depression do not typically directly affect magnesium levels in the same way as gastrointestinal conditions like ulcerative colitis.
Who typically owns a patient's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'The physician.' Physicians typically own their patients' medical records as they are the ones responsible for creating, updating, and maintaining these records. However, it is essential to note that patients have the legal right to access and obtain copies of their medical records. Choice A ('The patient') is incorrect as patients do not own their medical records, but they do have rights regarding access to them. Choice C ('The Legal Counsel of the Office') is incorrect as legal counsel typically do not own or have ownership rights over medical records. Choice D ('No one owns a medical record') is incorrect as medical records are owned by healthcare providers who create and maintain them, such as physicians.
You are attempting to teach the wife of a Greek patient how to administer his gastrostomy tube feedings once he returns home. She smiles and nods through your explanations, but when you ask her for a return demonstration, she looks confused and shakes her head. Her daughter enters the room and states that she does not speak English. What would be most helpful in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching both the patient's wife and the daughter is the best option in this situation. The daughter may not always be available, and the wife is eager to care for her husband at home. While a hospital interpreter is often preferred, asking the daughter to interpret is a good alternative. This approach allows the daughter to receive instruction and reinforce it for herself as she translates it to her mother. Contacting a home health agency may not be necessary if family members are willing and able to assist. Providing a pamphlet with detailed instructions would not be as effective in ensuring the wife fully understands the procedure and can carry it out correctly.
A nurse is performing an end-of-shift count of narcotics kept in the locked cabinet. The narcotic log states there should be 26 oxycodone pills left, but there are only 24 in the drawer. What is the first action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action the nurse should take in this situation is to perform the count again. This step is crucial to ensure there was no miscount during the initial check. By verifying the count, the nurse can confirm if there is indeed a discrepancy in the number of oxycodone pills. Contacting the pharmacy, checking with the last nurse, or notifying the house supervisor should only be considered after ensuring the count is accurate. It's important to rule out any human error before escalating the issue to others.
Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.
A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
When planning care for an uninsured diabetic patient, which strategy should be a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority when planning care for an uninsured diabetic patient should be to follow evidence-based practice guidelines. By adhering to standardized evidence-based guidelines, the nurse can help reduce healthcare disparities among different socioeconomic groups. While obtaining less expensive medications and assisting with dietary changes are important, the primary concern should be providing care that aligns with established standards of practice. Teaching about the impact of exercise is also valuable but may not be the priority when immediate care planning for an uninsured patient is considered.
The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.
While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.
As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.
A nursing student is teaching a patient and family about epilepsy prior to the patient's discharge. For which statement should you intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."? Patients with epilepsy should not take over-the-counter medications without medical advice due to potential interactions with antiepileptic drugs or triggering seizures. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a patient with epilepsy, focusing on alcohol avoidance, wearing a medical alert bracelet, and airway protection during a seizure, respectively. Choice D is incorrect because patients with epilepsy need to be cautious about medications due to possible interactions or adverse effects, so consulting with a physician is crucial before taking over-the-counter medications.
What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.
The charge nurse is notified that the unit will be receiving an admission of a client from another bed in the hospital in order to make room for others being admitted through the emergency room. The unit is the Women's Health Center of the hospital. Which of the following patients would be most appropriate to be transferred to this unit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When deciding on transferring patients between units in a hospital, it is essential to consider the appropriateness of the patient for the receiving unit. The Women's Health Center typically caters to female patients with gynecological or obstetric conditions that do not require intensive monitoring or specialized care. In this scenario, the most suitable patient for transfer to the Women's Health Center would be the 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection, as her condition aligns more closely with the services provided in that unit. The other options, including a male patient, a critically ill patient on a ventilator, and an elderly patient with Alzheimer's disease, would not be appropriate for transfer to a Women's Health Center due to the specialized care they require, which may not align with the unit's focus and staffing capabilities.
A client on an acute mental health unit reports hearing voices that are stating, "kill your doctor"?. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client experiences command hallucinations, such as being told to harm someone, the priority is ensuring the safety of the client and others. Initiating one-to-one observation allows for close monitoring and intervention to prevent harm. Encouraging participation in group therapy may not be appropriate or safe at this time. Focusing the client on reality may not be effective when experiencing hallucinations, and notifying the provider should come after immediate safety measures have been taken.
When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, what should you do to prevent the patient from falling?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When escorting a patient to the operating room on a stretcher, it is crucial to secure a safety belt or strap on the patient to prevent falls during the transfer. This safety measure is not considered a restraint but a necessary precaution. Lowering the bed position is not necessary; in fact, the bed should be in a high position to align with the stretcher. Locking the wheels of the stretcher is essential to prevent accidents during patient transfer. Therefore, the correct action to prevent falls while moving a patient to the operating room is to use a safety belt or strap on the patient throughout the escort.
Mary T. was admitted to a nursing home on May 1st. On July 4th, she was diagnosed with a skin infection. This infection is considered a ________________ infection.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'nosocomial.' A nosocomial infection is defined as one that is not present upon admission to a healthcare facility but instead occurs during the patient's stay. In this case, since Mary was diagnosed with a skin infection after being admitted to the nursing home, it is considered a nosocomial infection. Nosocomial infections are a significant concern in healthcare settings, and infection control measures are in place to prevent their spread. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. 'Systemic' refers to a condition affecting the entire body, not specific to a healthcare setting. 'Resident flora' and 'resident aura' are not commonly used terms in healthcare and do not relate to infections acquired in healthcare facilities.
What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The 'B' in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. SBAR is a standardized communication tool used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. In this context, 'Background' refers to providing relevant information about the patient's history, current status, and any other pertinent details. This information helps ensure clear and concise communication between healthcare providers, enhancing patient care. Choice B, 'Basic,' is incorrect as the 'B' specifically emphasizes the detailed background information. Choices C and D, 'Beginning' and 'Break,' are not accurate in the context of the SBAR communication tool.
The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Is it true that Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be spread through hugging, sneezing, coughing, sharing eating utensils, and other forms of casual contact?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
False. HCV is not spread through casual contact such as hugging, sneezing, or sharing eating utensils. The correct modes of transmission for HCV include direct contact with human blood through blood transfusions, improperly sterilized needles and syringes, needle sharing, or occasionally through sexual contact. Therefore, the statement is false, making 'False' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the mode of transmission of HCV.
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