Free Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 38 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exa
Family members of a patient ask repeated questions about the monitors and various readings in the patient's room. What is the most supportive response to their questions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Addressing the family's questions and providing an overview of information validates their concerns and addresses their requests. Limiting details and encouraging them to focus on the patient helps to avoid anxiety that could be created by focusing on values that should be interpreted in the context of the patient's situation by professionals with experience with such data. It also encourages them to provide what they uniquely have to offer: a comforting presence for their loved one. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the family's needs. Choice B may overwhelm the family with unnecessary technical information. Choice C is unhelpful as it disregards the family's genuine interest and concern. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response as it balances providing information while guiding the family to focus on supporting the patient.
The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.
Which of the following reasons would be legal when considering a patient's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is not allowing a patient to view her own chart because the physician feels this information would be detrimental to her wellbeing. Physicians have a duty to withhold certain health information from patients if disclosing it could potentially harm the patient. In situations where revealing certain information may have a significantly negative impact on the patient's mental or physical health, healthcare providers have the legal right to withhold that information. Allowing a patient's brother to view her chart for non-medical reasons like sending a card is not a valid legal reason for disclosing patient information. Similarly, refusing access based on financial reasons is not a legal ground for restricting access to a patient's medical record as patient care should not be influenced by financial matters.
A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.
Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.
The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.
If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.
A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.
Working in a clinic located in a community with many Hispanics, what strategy could the nurse implement to decrease health care disparities for Hispanic patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Health care disparities are primarily rooted in stereotyping, biases, and prejudice among healthcare providers. By educating clinic staff about Hispanic health beliefs, the nurse can help combat these issues, leading to improved cultural competency and patient care. Understanding the cultural context of Hispanic patients can enhance communication, trust, and treatment adherence. Improving public transportation, updating equipment, and obtaining low-cost medications are important aspects of healthcare delivery but do not directly address the underlying causes of health disparities experienced by Hispanic patients.
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.
A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not recommended?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a patient with Addison's disease, a restricted sodium diet is not recommended. These patients require normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) should have ample access to salt because of the salt wasting that occurs if their condition is untreated. Therefore, a diet high in grains, a diet with adequate caloric intake, and a high protein diet are all recommended for patients with Addison's disease to support their nutritional needs and overall health. However, restricting sodium can be detrimental for these patients due to the nature of their condition.
A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'
A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.
All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.
A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.
A client is refusing to undergo any more treatments in the hospital and wants to leave against medical advice. When the nurse requests the client to sign an AMA order, the client refuses and leaves. What is the next action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse cannot force the client to stay in the hospital to receive treatment or to sign an AMA order. It is essential to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. While involving security or pressuring the client through the physician or spouse may seem like options, they are not appropriate in this situation. The nurse should allow the client to leave if they are competent to make that decision, document the refusal in the client's chart to ensure all actions are appropriately documented, and follow institutional policies for patients leaving against medical advice.
A patient with bipolar disorder asks the nurse, "Why did I get this illness? I don't want to be sick."? The nurse would best respond with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is, 'We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.' Current research suggests that while genetics play a role in the development of mental illnesses like bipolar disorder, it is not the sole factor. Environmental influences, life experiences, and other non-genetic factors also contribute significantly to the manifestation of mental disorders. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information that is not supported by current research. Traumatic childhood experiences, contracting a virus during childhood, and an overactive immune system are not established causes of bipolar disorder or mental illnesses in general.
Which of the following is a function of risk management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.
What would a healthcare professional expect to observe while assessing the growth of children during their school-age years?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During school-age years, children typically gain about 5.5 pounds per year and increase in height by about 2 inches annually. This steady growth pattern is expected between ages 2 to 10 years. Choice A is incorrect as children at this stage are expected to gain weight and grow in height. Choice B is incorrect as there should be noticeable changes in body appearance due to growth. Choice C is incorrect as a progressive height increase of 4 inches each year is not typical during the school-age years.
In which of the following examples would informed consent not be required?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further harm or save a life, such as in option B where a child is rushed to the Emergency Room after a fall, informed consent may be waived to provide prompt care. In option A, though the patient is apprehensive about surgery and chooses not to learn the risks, informed consent is not required as it is the patient's right to refuse information. In option C, when an adult is in a coma with no next of kin listed, decisions may be made in the patient's best interest following legal and ethical guidelines. Therefore, informed consent is not needed in any of the scenarios presented.
Which of the following is an example of effective time management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.
The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.
Examples of preservation of self-integrity include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preservation of self-integrity involves actions that support the nurse's well-being and ethical standards. Using assistive equipment to move bariatric clients and practicing hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are essential aspects of maintaining physical health and safety, contributing to self-care. Participating in wellness programs further enhances self-care by promoting overall well-being. However, accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices can be emotionally taxing and may compromise a nurse's self-integrity if it leads to significant moral distress or ethical conflicts. In such situations, it is important for nurses to prioritize their well-being and ethical values by seeking alternative solutions or support.
A client is found lying on the floor near the bathroom door, stating, 'I thought I could get up on my own.' What information must the nurse document in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a fall or injury occurs while under nursing care, it is crucial to document the known aspects of the situation and the response to the injury. In this scenario, the nurse should document the client's condition as found and quote the client's own words about the situation. This helps provide a clear account of the event without implying blame. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because detailing how the fall happened, listing room conditions, or summarizing medical history are not directly relevant to documenting the immediate situation and the client's own words following the fall.
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client suffering from a fever?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate nursing intervention for a client suffering from a fever is to increase the client's fluid intake. A fever can elevate the body's metabolism, leading to increased breathing and heart workload. This can result in fluid loss due to heightened respiration and sweating. Moreover, the augmented heart workload may necessitate more oxygen to maintain tissue perfusion. Providing oxygen and increasing fluid intake help meet the body's heightened demands during a fever. Withholding food from the client is inappropriate as proper nutrition is crucial for recovery, and providing oxygen alone may not address the fluid and metabolic demands associated with fever. Therefore, the correct choice is to increase the client's fluid intake.
Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.
During an adolescent examination, the nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is scoliosis. During the assessment for scoliosis, the nurse asks the adolescent to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely to observe for any lateral deviation of the spine, uneven rib levels, or asymmetry. This assessment is a routine part of an adolescent examination, especially in females, as scoliosis is more common in this population. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Spinal flexibility is usually assessed through different maneuvers, leg length disparity is evaluated by measuring the length of the legs, and hypostatic blood pressure refers to a decrease in blood pressure due to immobility.
Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.
A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.
The client with multiple sclerosis is being educated by the nurse on exercises and physical activities. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "I should exercise until I am exhausted."? This statement indicates a need for further teaching because patients with multiple sclerosis should avoid exercising to the point of exhaustion or fatigue. Strenuous physical activity can increase body temperature and potentially worsen symptoms in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Choice A is correct because lifting weights and resistance training can be appropriate exercises for patients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is valid because aerobic exercises can also be beneficial. Choice D is accurate as proper stretching before starting an exercise routine is essential for preventing injuries.
A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.
Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anemia can lead to an increased respiratory rate. In anemia, there are decreased levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. To compensate for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, the body increases the respiratory rate to bring in more oxygen. Stooped posture (Choice A) is not directly related to an increased respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics (Choice B) are more likely to cause a decreased respiratory rate due to their central nervous system depressant effects. Injury to the brain stem (Choice C) can affect respiratory function but may not necessarily lead to an increased respiratory rate.
Tommy R., your 68-year-old patient, is at risk for falls. He has fallen 3 times in the last month. You should keep Tommy's ______________ in order to prevent him from falling again.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent falls, it is essential to keep the patient's call bell within reach so they can easily call for help when needed. This allows for timely assistance and can prevent falls. While low beds can reduce the severity of injuries in case of a fall, they do not prevent falls from happening. Having family members in the room at all times is not a realistic or practical solution. Side rails can actually increase the severity of falls as patients may attempt to climb over them, and using side rails as fall prevention is considered a restraint practice that can lead to entrapment and other risks.
The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer, 'I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause,' demonstrates an understanding that depression can arise without a clear trigger, indicating effective teaching. Choice A is incorrect because not all elderly individuals experience depression, and this statement doesn't show understanding. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects a misconception about the quick resolution of depression. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between stress reduction and depression resolution.
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