Free Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 39 nursing exam-style questions with r
A nurse walks into a client's room to find the nursing assistant yelling, 'Sit back down or I won't help you eat, and then you will starve!' This type of behavior is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Psychological abuse. This behavior is classified as psychological abuse, which harms another person through words or threats. The nursing assistant's actions of yelling, making threats, and using food as a form of control fall under psychological abuse. Abandonment (choice B) refers to deserting or leaving a client without care, which is not the case in the scenario. Material exploitation (choice C) involves taking advantage of a person's assets or resources for personal gain, which is not evident here. Physical abuse (choice D) involves causing physical harm, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for the behavior described in the scenario is psychological abuse.
Which of the following is a true statement about assessing blood pressure by palpation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing blood pressure by palpation, it is important to note that only the systolic blood pressure can be determined accurately using this method. Diastolic blood pressure cannot be reliably assessed through palpation. The palpation technique is particularly useful in situations where traditional blood pressure measurement methods are challenging, such as in infants, small children, or individuals with low blood pressure that is difficult to hear. Hypertension, a common condition characterized by elevated blood pressure, is typically assessed using auscultation rather than palpation. Therefore, the correct statement is that only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
Which of the following tasks may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Certain tasks can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel to assist nurses in their workload. Tasks that involve routine activities like incentive spirometry can be delegated. Unlicensed assistive personnel can assist clients with incentive spirometry, helping in promoting lung expansion and preventing respiratory complications. Cleansing a wound with peroxide (Choice A) and irrigating a colostomy (Choice B) involve more complex procedures that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers due to the risk of infection and potential complications. Removing a saline-lock IV (Choice D) requires specialized training and should only be performed by licensed personnel to prevent complications and ensure patient safety. The nurse remains responsible for delegating tasks appropriately and overseeing the care provided by unlicensed assistive personnel.
A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.
After Brandon is stabilized following his second myocardial infarction due to cocaine use, what collaborative process should begin to connect him with additional resources?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following stabilization, it is essential to connect Brandon with additional resources to address his addiction. Social services are a crucial collaborative partner in this situation because they have access to community resources that can support Brandon's rehabilitation needs. While law enforcement may be involved in certain situations, their primary role is not to provide rehabilitation services. Narcotics Anonymous is a valuable support group but does not offer the comprehensive services that social services for rehab can provide. A financial counselor may be beneficial for addressing financial concerns, but the priority at this stage is to address Brandon's addiction through appropriate rehabilitation services.
Which information given by a 70-year-old patient during a health history indicates to the nurse that the patient should be screened for hepatitis C?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago.' Any patient with a history of IV drug use should be tested for hepatitis C due to the increased risk of transmission through sharing needles. Blood transfusions given after 1992, when an antibody test for hepatitis C became available, do not pose a risk for hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is not spread by the oral-fecal route, so contaminated food or traveling to countries with poor sanitation are not direct risk factors for hepatitis C.
A client is seen in the emergency room as a victim of suspected domestic violence. The nurse's aide brings the client to a center curtained area, gives her a gown to change into, and asks her to wait for the nurse. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse upon arrival?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with a client suspected of domestic violence, it is crucial to provide privacy and a safe environment. Taking the client into a private room allows for a confidential conversation and assessment without compromising the client's safety or dignity. The nurse should prioritize creating a safe space for the client to share information and receive support. Notification of authorities should only occur once a thorough assessment has been conducted to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because asking the client to undress should be done with sensitivity and respect for the client's privacy, focusing on assessing injuries rather than visualizing them. Option C is premature as involving the police should be based on a comprehensive assessment and the client's consent. Option D is not the most immediate and direct action required to address the client's immediate needs in a suspected domestic violence situation.
Which of the following statements is true regarding non-profit organizations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Non-profit organizations are entities that operate for a social cause or public benefit, and they do not distribute profits to owners or shareholders. They are not limited to being located in poor or rural areas; they can be found in various locations. One key characteristic of non-profits is that they are obligated to provide services, regardless of a client's ability to pay. This ensures that essential services are accessible to all individuals in need. The statement 'The money they receive for services is reinvested back into their own business to further develop services' is correct. Non-profit organizations reinvest any surplus funds back into their operations to enhance the services they provide. The statement 'They are not referred to as proprietary organizations' is correct because proprietary organizations are typically for-profit entities, not non-profit ones.
What information should be collected when assessing the health status of a community?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing the health status of a community, it is crucial to gather data on various health measures such as the most common causes of death. This information helps in understanding the prevalent health issues within the community. Factors like air pollution levels, the number of health food stores, and the education level of individuals are important community aspects but do not directly reflect the health status of the community. Therefore, the correct answer is to collect data on the most common causes of death as it provides insights into the major health concerns affecting the community.
A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for teaching the child's parents about this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
: An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes 5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a physician and will take approximately 1 ½ hours to complete.
The client is receiving an MAOI. Which foods should the nurse caution the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. When a client is receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), they should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate are rich in tyramine and can interact with MAOIs, leading to a dangerous rise in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not typically restricted when taking MAOIs.
Asepsis is defined as ________________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asepsis is defined as the absence of disease-causing germs. It is surgical asepsis that is defined as the absence of all microorganisms, including spores. A pathogenic infection is an invasion of the body by a pathogen, or disease-causing germ, and a urinary infection is only one type of infection.
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
A client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse, 'My daughter never visits me.' The nurse responds by telling the client that when her own mother was in a long-term care facility, she found it difficult to visit. This is an example of which communication technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Self-disclosure is a therapeutic communication technique that nurses use to build rapport and trust with clients. By sharing personal experiences, nurses can help clients feel understood and encourage them to open up. In this scenario, the nurse sharing her own struggle with visiting her mother demonstrates self-disclosure. Empathy (choice A) involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, but in this case, the nurse is sharing her own experience rather than focusing solely on the client's emotions. Disapproval (choice C) and false reassurance (choice D) do not apply in this context as the nurse is not expressing disapproval or giving false hope or comfort.
A client is preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood. All of the following information is part of teaching for this client EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood testing, clients need specific instructions to ensure accurate results. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid eating red meat for at least 3 days before the test, as the blood in the meat can interfere with the test results. Clients should be informed that the stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative as it is not required for this type of testing. Additionally, clients should be aware that a small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear. However, collecting the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement is not recommended as it may introduce contaminants and affect the accuracy of the test. Therefore, this information is not part of the correct teaching for the client preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood.
Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain
What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.
Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.
A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.
A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Forever.' Maintaining patients' charts indefinitely ensures comprehensive legal protection by having all relevant information available in case of litigation or if patient history needs to be referenced in the future. Choice A, '10 years,' may not be sufficient to cover the entire period within which legal issues may arise. Choice C, 'Until the age of majority,' is not ideal as legal matters may extend beyond this age limit. Choice D, '2 years after the patient was last seen in the office,' is inadequate as legal actions can occur beyond this timeframe, necessitating the need for long-term retention of patient charts.
A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
Which of the following is an example of the intervention phase of the individualized nursing care plan for a client who receives a colostomy after a bowel resection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The intervention stage of the individualized nursing care plan is where the nurse provides care, treatments, or education to help the client meet the devised outcomes. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma is the correct example of an intervention as it directly involves providing education and guidance to the client on post-operative care. This intervention supports the process of helping the client meet the outcomes designed for this case, which is to enable the client to properly care for his colostomy after a bowel resection. The other options do not directly involve interventions aimed at assisting the client in meeting the specific care needs related to the colostomy procedure.
A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.
When a mother is inquiring about her child's ability to potty train, what is the most critical aspect of toilet training?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical aspect of toilet training is the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. While age can play a role, it is not the sole determining factor. Understanding instructions is important but may not be the most critical aspect. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement can be helpful, but without considering the child's abilities, it may not lead to successful potty training.
A family member is complaining that the lights are too dim in the middle of the night when she comes in to visit her husband. What is the most objective response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most objective response in this situation is to explain to the family member that there is a specific reason for dimming the lights and offer to share a research study to provide evidence-based information. By doing so, it helps the family member understand that the care provided is based on established practices and research, potentially alleviating her concerns and ensuring that her husband receives appropriate care. Choices A, B, and C do not address the family member's concern or provide a rationale backed by evidence, making them less suitable responses in this context.
A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.
You are turning your patient in bed and notice that a confused and lethargic patient had loose car keys and lipstick in the bed and had been lying on them. What is this person at risk for due to all three of these factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
This patient is at great risk for skin breakdown due to the presence of three specific risk factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed. While confusion puts the patient at risk for falls, confusion and lethargy together may lead to a lack of mobility. However, skin breakdown is the primary concern in this scenario as it is associated with all three risk factors - confusion, lethargy, and the presence of items in the bed. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Skin breakdown'.
Which example best describes a nurse who exhibits moral courage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Moral courage involves taking action to do what is right, even when there might be negative consequences. The nurse who contacted a physician for further orders acted as a client advocate to seek help, even though she may have faced consequences such as lost time, decreased productivity, or criticism from the physician. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve advocating for a client's needs or challenging a situation that goes against ethical standards. Feeling angry, seeking help for personal issues, or being frustrated with work processes do not necessarily demonstrate moral courage in the context of nursing practice.
When teaching a Vietnamese patient who has been treated for pneumonia and needs to complete her antibiotic regimen at home, what is an important cultural component to consider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Once symptoms disappear there is no longer an illness'. In Vietnamese culture, there is a belief that once symptoms go away, the illness is no longer present and does not require further treatment. This is crucial to understand when educating Vietnamese patients about completing their antibiotic regimen. Choices A and B (cupping and coining) are traditional Vietnamese healing practices that are not directly related to completing antibiotic therapy. Choice D, about households consisting of multiple generations, is not directly relevant to the completion of antibiotic treatment for pneumonia in this context.
A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.
At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.
What action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective action by the nurse to decrease the spread of pertussis in a community setting is to teach patients about the necessity of adult pertussis immunizations. The increased rate of pertussis in adults is often attributed to waning immunity after childhood immunization. Immunization is highly effective in protecting communities from infectious diseases. While teaching about handwashing is important for overall infection control, pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets and contact with secretions. Providing supportive care does not significantly impact the disease course or transmission risk. Encouraging completion of antibiotics may help reduce transmission, but patients likely have already spread the disease by the time the diagnosis is made. Therefore, the emphasis should be on prevention through immunization to reduce the spread of pertussis.
A nurse is using active listening as a form of therapeutic communication when:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Active listening is a form of therapeutic communication that involves the nurse encouraging a client to express their thoughts and feelings. Maintaining eye contact and an open stance while the client is talking demonstrates active listening and shows the client that they are being heard and understood. Using humor (Choice A) may not always be appropriate or therapeutic in all situations. Restating what the client said (Choice B) is a technique known as paraphrasing and is also a form of active listening. Providing personal information (Choice D) can shift the focus from the client to the nurse, which is not the intention of active listening.
When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, what should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to emphasize avoiding very heavy meals. Eating large, heavy meals can divert blood away from the heart for digestion, potentially endangering clients with coronary artery disease. This practice may lead to an increased risk of plaque accumulation in the arteries, potentially obstructing the delivery of blood and oxygen to vital organs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While eating three balanced meals a day, adding complex carbohydrates, and limiting sodium intake are generally good dietary practices, they are not the primary focus when teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition. The emphasis should be on avoiding heavy meals that can strain the cardiovascular system.
A client returns from surgery after having a colon resection. The nurse is performing an assessment and notes the wound edges have separated. This condition is called:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Wound dehiscence occurs when the edges of a wound pull apart. The condition may occur following a surgical procedure if the sutures were deficient. Wound dehiscence may also occur following a wound infection or in cases where a client significantly stretches or overuses the associated tissues. Evisceration refers to the protrusion of internal organs through an open wound. Hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels. Granulation is the formation of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels on the surface of a wound during the healing process.
A client is receiving education on cholesterol. Which of the following statements from the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, 'It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because high LDL levels contribute to atherosclerosis, while high HDL levels can protect against heart disease. The client should understand the importance of lowering LDL levels and increasing HDL levels to maintain good heart health. Choice A is correct as desiring HDL levels over 50 is a positive goal. Choice B is correct as it reflects the ideal scenario of high HDL and low LDL levels. Choice D is correct as a total cholesterol below 200 is a common goal for heart health. Therefore, Choice C is incorrect as it suggests an opposite and unhealthy relationship between LDL and HDL levels.
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