Free PN Psychosocial Integrity practice for PN Nclex Questions 2024 (NCLEX PN). Answer 54 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress
The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse's next action should be to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases where elderly clients deny abuse and refuse assistance, it is crucial for the nurse to respect their autonomy while also ensuring their safety. Educating the client about available services is the appropriate action as it empowers the client with information without imposing any decisions on them. It allows the client to make informed choices regarding their well-being. Reporting the incident to the authorities (Choice B) may be necessary if there is immediate danger, but in this scenario, the client denies abuse. Arranging an appointment with the client's family (Choice C) may not be appropriate without the client's consent or in cases where the family might be involved in the abuse. Simply doing nothing (Choice A) is not the best course of action as the nurse should still provide support and resources to the client.
Which of the following attitudes is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problems is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises. This approach focuses on addressing the immediate crisis first, which can potentially prevent the escalation of bigger problems. Wanting to help clients solve all problems identified (Choice B) may not be feasible or necessary during a crisis situation where immediate intervention is crucial. Taking an active role in guiding the process (Choice C) is important, but the primary focus should be on crisis intervention. Feeling that work requires identification with all of a client's problems (Choice D) may lead to a lack of focus on the immediate crisis at hand.
A 50-milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To infuse a 50 ml bolus in 30 minutes, the rate should be calculated as follows: 50 ml / 30 min = 100 ml per hour. Therefore, the correct answer is to set the pump rate at 100 ml per hour for one hour. Choice A is the correct rate based on the calculation. Choices B, C, and D all provide incorrect rates that do not match the physician's order. Choice B would only deliver 30 ml in 30 minutes, not the ordered 50 ml. Choice C would deliver 120 ml in one hour, which is 20 ml more than ordered. Choice D would only provide 25 ml over 30 minutes, not the full 50 ml prescribed.
Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.
The primary organ for drug elimination is the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.
Which of the following statements by a client with spinal cord injury indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse regarding bowel management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The corrected statement indicates the need for further teaching because it suggests consuming fluids like fruit juices, which can include caffeinated options that may stimulate fluid loss through increased urination. It is more appropriate to emphasize the consumption of fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices for proper hydration. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate a correct understanding of bowel management by focusing on dietary considerations, establishing a regular bowel movement schedule, and using proper positioning during bowel movements. Option B is incorrect as it may lead to increased fluid loss due to caffeine content in some fruit juices.
There are many types of torts that can be committed against clients. They include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'felony.' Felonies are serious crimes punishable by time in prison and are not considered types of torts. Types of torts include assault, battery, negligence, as well as other examples like slander, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, and fraud. Assault involves the threat of harm, battery involves physical harm, and negligence involves a failure to exercise reasonable care. These are all civil wrongs (torts) rather than criminal offenses (felonies), making 'felony' the correct choice.
Before administering Theodur to a 10-year-old being treated for asthma, the nurse should check the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the pulse. Theodur is a bronchodilator used in asthma treatment, and one of the side effects is tachycardia (increased heart rate). Therefore, it is essential to assess the pulse rate before administering Theodur to monitor for any potential tachycardia. Checking urinary output (Choice A), blood pressure (Choice B), and temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to the immediate side effects of bronchodilators like Theodur in this context, making them unnecessary assessments.
While admitting a client to an acute-care psychiatric unit, the nurse asks about substance abuse based on:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'individuals with psychiatric disorders' increased susceptibility to substance abuse.' It is crucial to inquire about substance abuse during admission to an acute-care psychiatric unit because individuals with psychiatric disorders are more prone to experiencing substance abuse issues. Addressing substance abuse is vital for effective treatment and to prevent relapse in psychiatric disorders. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the prevalence of psychiatric illness in addicted populations rather than the relationship between psychiatric disorders and substance abuse. Option C is incorrect as it exaggerates the ease of detecting and diagnosing substance disorders in acute-care psychiatric settings. Option D is incorrect as undetected substance problems can indeed significantly impact the treatment of psychiatric disorders, but the main reason for inquiring about substance abuse is the increased susceptibility of individuals with psychiatric disorders to such issues.
When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to address the issue promptly and effectively. Confronting the staff member immediately in front of the client may worsen the situation by enhancing the division of staff and compromising client care. Writing an incident report, although important for documentation, may not address the immediate need to correct the behavior. Bringing up the incident during a weekly conference may not be the most effective approach for immediate resolution. Asking the staff member to talk in private and reinforcing how antisocial clients try to divide staff is the best option. This approach allows for a constructive conversation to address the issue, provide education, and help the staff member develop skills to work effectively with this client population.
A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Explanation: When discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) after long-term use, it is crucial to taper the dosage gradually to prevent withdrawal symptoms. The correct statement indicates an understanding of this by planning a structured decrease in dosage over time. Choice A is incorrect as drinking alcohol while decreasing Xanax can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as abruptly stopping Xanax is not safe and can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as expecting to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medication does not address the need for a gradual tapering process to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? This response is appropriate because there is no known safe amount of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy can pose risks to the developing fetus, leading to conditions like fetal alcohol syndrome, which is a combination of mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests that consuming one or two drinks a day is safe during pregnancy, which is not supported by current medical guidelines. Choice C incorrectly states that only drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is harmful, when in reality, any amount of alcohol can be harmful to the fetus. Choice D is inappropriate as it suggests that having a drink to relax and sleep is acceptable during pregnancy, which is not the case.
A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.
A client with acute leukemia develops a low white blood cell count. In addition to the institution of isolation, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client with acute leukemia and a low white blood cell count, preventing exposure to food contaminants is crucial due to immune suppression. Providing foods in sealed single-serving packages helps reduce the risk of contamination. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces the potential of infection from visitors. Choice A, suggesting disposable utensils, is not as effective as sealed containers in preventing food contamination. Choice C, using alcohol for prepping IV sites, is less suitable due to its drying effect and potential for skin breakdown, making sealed packages a better option for food safety.
A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past 3 days.' This information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing as it involves medication errors and potential drug diversion, which are serious issues that fall under the jurisdiction of the Board. Reporting medication discrepancies and errors in narcotic counts is crucial for patient safety and regulatory compliance. Choices A, C, and D involve different types of issues that are not within the direct purview of the Board of Nursing. Providing literature in multiple languages (Choice A), addressing billing practices (Choice C), and resolving staff performance issues (Choice D) should be handled internally or reported to the appropriate departments or authorities, such as the Joint Commission or the charge nurse.
The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.
Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The novice nurse failing to wear gloves when removing a dressing indicates a need for further teaching to emphasize infection control practices. This action can lead to the spread of infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate proper nursing skills and techniques. Applying an oxygen saturation monitor to the earlobe, elevating the head of the bed to check blood pressure, and placing the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample all reflect understanding of correct procedures in patient care.
Which of the following roommates would be most suitable for the client with myasthenia gravis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most suitable roommate for the client with myasthenia gravis is the client with hypothyroidism because they are quiet. A client with Crohn's disease (choice B) would be up to the bathroom frequently due to gastrointestinal issues, which could disturb the roommate with myasthenia gravis. A client with pyelonephritis (choice C) suffering from a kidney infection will need to urinate frequently, causing disturbances. A client with bronchitis (choice D) will be coughing, potentially disrupting the rest and quiet environment needed by a roommate with myasthenia gravis to manage their symptoms effectively.
The difference between spirituality and religion is that spirituality is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'an individual's relationship with a higher power.' Spirituality is more about personal connection, beliefs, and experiences related to a higher power or force, whereas religion is often associated with organized practices, rituals, and doctrines within a specific faith community. Choice A is incorrect as spirituality goes beyond just believing in a higher power; it encompasses a personal connection. Choice C, 'organized worship,' is incorrect because spirituality can exist outside formal religious settings. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies spirituality as merely a belief in an invisible energy or ideal, missing the relational aspect with a higher power.
A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.
A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.
Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.
The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client's ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with diabetes who has trouble seeing would require follow-up after discharge. The lack of visual acuity for the client preparing and injecting insulin might require help. Answers A, C, and D will not prevent the client from being able to care for himself and are incorrect. Living alone (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate a need for follow-up unless there are specific concerns. Having a cat at home (Choice C) and driving to the doctor (Choice D) are not direct indicators of the client's ability to care for himself.
The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
What is the first exercise that should be performed by a client who had a mastectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Squeezing a ball. The first exercise that should be done by a client with a mastectomy is squeezing a ball. This helps in regaining strength and mobility in the affected area. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically the initial exercises recommended post-mastectomy. Walking the hand up the wall, sweeping the floor, and combing hair are activities that may be introduced later in the rehabilitation process.
The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).
The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.
The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client with Alzheimer's disease is the most stable among the clients listed and can be appropriately assigned to the nursing assistant. Nursing assistants are capable of providing care such as feeding and assisting with activities of daily living for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Clients with pneumonia, appendicitis, and thrombophlebitis are less stable and necessitate the expertise of a registered nurse for accurate assessment and interventions. Therefore, the nursing assistant can effectively care for the client with Alzheimer's disease while ensuring that the other clients receive the necessary level of care from a registered nurse.
In the context of milieu therapy, what is its primary purpose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Milieu therapy aims to provide routine daily experiences to clients. By offering a structured and predictable environment, it helps individuals feel safe and secure, reducing disruptive behaviors. Exploring the client's perception of reality (choice A) may be part of therapy but not the primary focus. Enhancing social interaction abilities (choice B) and addressing maladaptive behaviors (choice C) are important aspects of therapy but not the primary purpose of milieu therapy.
When discussing the patterns of use of alcohol and other drugs, which piece of information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age. Recent research indicates that alcohol and illicit drug use tends to rise into the mid-20s and then decline with age. Choices A and B are incorrect because lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use are greater in men than in women, and Caucasians do not report higher levels of alcohol use compared to African Americans or Hispanics. Choice D is incorrect because heavy use is more common in lower socioeconomic groups due to factors like stress, coping mechanisms, and availability, not just affordability.
While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.
The nurse observes bilateral bruises on the arms of an elderly client in a long-term care facility. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When addressing suspected abuse, it is crucial to ask direct questions to determine the cause of injuries. Choice B is the most appropriate as it directly inquires about the possibility of someone grabbing the client's arms, which could indicate abuse. This question can help uncover potential abuse and provide necessary intervention. Choices A, C, and D are less direct and may not elicit the critical information needed to address abuse effectively. Clients often hesitate to report abuse due to feelings of shame and fear of retaliation, making a direct approach essential in such situations.
A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.
A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.
Which task should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A licensed practical nurse should not initiate a blood transfusion. LPNs can assist with transfusions and verify ID numbers but should not be assigned to initiate the procedure. Inserting Foley catheters, discontinuing nasogastric tubes, and obtaining sputum specimens are within the scope of practice for LPNs. Therefore, options A, B, and C are tasks that LPNs can perform, making them incorrect choices.
Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.
After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.
A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.
The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg po tid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A persistent cough might be related to an adverse reaction to captopril (Capoten). Tinnitus (choice A) and diarrhea (choice D) are not commonly associated adverse reactions of captopril. Muscle weakness (choice C) might occur initially but is not considered a common adverse effect of captopril. Therefore, the correct answer is B, persistent cough, as it is a known adverse reaction to captopril.
A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.
The nurse is caring for a dying client who has persistently requested that the nurse 'help her to die and be in peace.' According to the Code of Ethics for Nurses, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to the Code of Ethics for Nurses, the nurse should try to make the client as comfortable as possible but refuse to assist in death. It is not within the scope of nursing practice to assist in death, even if requested by the client. Choice A is incorrect as advance directives do not directly relate to the client's request for assistance in dying. Choice B is inappropriate as passing the responsibility to another nurse does not address the ethical dilemma at hand. Choice C is incorrect because instructing the client that only a physician can legally assist in suicide does not address the ethical considerations involved in the request. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to provide comfort measures while upholding ethical standards and not participating in ending the client's life.
Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Explanation: Ashley is displaying symptoms of severe anxiety, including confusion, trouble focusing, dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. These somatic symptoms, along with changes in vital signs, indicate severe anxiety. In severe anxiety, individuals are unable to solve problems and have a poor grasp of their environment. On the other hand, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance, while moderate anxiety results in difficulty grasping information and minor changes in vital signs. Panic, the most severe level of anxiety, involves markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, based on Ashley's symptoms, her anxiety level should be assessed as severe.
A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? It is crucial for pregnant women to avoid alcohol as there is no known safe amount during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol can harm the developing fetus and increase the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition characterized by mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide misleading information that can potentially harm the fetus. Pregnant women should abstain from alcohol to ensure the health and well-being of their baby.
Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is that fat emulsions have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio. Fat emulsions are formulated in 10%, 20%, and 30% solutions and supply 1.1, 2, and 3 kilocalories, respectively, for each milliliter. In comparison, a milliliter of 5% dextrose only supplies 0.17 kilocalories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is false because fat emulsions are essentially pH neutral and isotonic, not hypertonic. Choice C is incorrect because fat emulsions are not basic solutions; they are essentially pH neutral. Choice D is incorrect as fat emulsions are not alkaline; they are pH neutral, making them compatible with most medications.
Who may legally give informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor. Informed consent can be given by individuals who are competent and not minors. Minors are generally unable to provide informed consent unless they are emancipated. Choice A is incorrect because an 86-year-old male with advanced Alzheimer's disease is considered incompetent to make decisions. Choice D is incorrect because a 6-month-old baby is unable to provide consent. Emancipated minors are an exception to the minor rule, as they can provide consent for their own treatment.
Support-system enhancement includes all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Support-system enhancement involves various strategies to strengthen the support system. Determining the barriers to using support systems, discussing ways to help others who are concerned, and involving spouse, family, and friends in the care and planning are all essential aspects of enhancing the support system. However, exploring the life problems of the support-team members is not directly related to enhancing the support system. This approach could potentially invade personal boundaries and may not be necessary for improving the support system, making it the correct answer in this case. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it does not align with the appropriate methods of support-system enhancement.
The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.
What is a common characteristic of individuals who become batterers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Was physically or psychologically abused.' Research indicates that many individuals who become batterers have a history of being abused themselves. This cycle of abuse can influence their behavior as adults. Choice A is incorrect because growing up in a loving home does not necessarily prevent someone from becoming a batterer. Choice B is incorrect as being an only child is not a determining factor in becoming a batterer. Choice D is incorrect because while admitting to anger issues is a positive step, it is not a common characteristic of individuals who become batterers.
A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.
A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.
Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.
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