Free PN Psychosocial Integrity practice for Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions (NCLEX PN). Answer 54 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam m
Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
Referral for client education in the community can be accomplished through all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Client education should be conducted by individuals with acknowledged expertise in the subject area and appropriate credentials to support their activities within the healthcare community. Choices A, B, and C involve reputable entities or professionals who can provide accurate and reliable client education. The American Heart Association, parish nurses, and home health care agencies are recognized for their healthcare-related knowledge and qualifications. However, unlicensed massage therapists lack the necessary qualifications and expertise to deliver appropriate healthcare-related education, making them unsuitable for referrals when it comes to client education in the community.
While walking in the hallway of an acute care unit of the hospital, the nurse overhears the change of shift report. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To protect the confidentiality of the information being reported, the nurse should make the charge nurse on the unit aware of the situation. This allows the charge nurse to take necessary steps to maintain confidentiality and ensure that the information is communicated in an appropriate and private manner. Disclosing the situation to the charge nurse is essential to address any breaches in confidentiality and uphold professional standards of privacy and ethics. Disregarding the information, returning to their own unit without disclosure, or ignoring the situation altogether would not address the breach of confidentiality and could lead to further issues regarding patient privacy and trust.
When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.
The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of health caregivers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, discussing a client scenario in a public elevator could potentially lead to the breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other choices, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not typically breached in this context. It is important to uphold client confidentiality to maintain trust and privacy in healthcare settings.
A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.
A 5-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A complication of a tonsillectomy is bleeding, and constant swallowing may indicate bleeding. Decreased appetite is expected after a tonsillectomy, as is a low-grade fever; thus, answers A and B are incorrect. Chest congestion, as mentioned in answer C, is not typical of tonsillectomy complications, making it an incorrect choice.
An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discarding the solution and ordering a new bag is the correct action to ensure the client's safety. Warming the solution, as suggested in answer B, will not resolve the issue of crystals and cloudiness, which could potentially harm the client. Continuing the infusion, as in answer C, could pose a risk to the client due to the presence of abnormal substances. Answer D, discontinuing the medication, would typically require a doctor's order and should be done after discarding the contaminated solution.
Which of the following factors can impact an individual's ability to give informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pain medications might alter alertness, thought processes, and reactions, potentially impacting an individual's ability to give informed consent. It is recommended to approach a client for consent at least 4 hours after the last dose of pain medicine to minimize any influence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While IQ and educational level may affect how information is presented during the discussion process, they do not directly impact informed-consent decision-making. Financial status is also not a direct factor in an individual's ability to provide informed consent, unlike pain medications which can directly affect cognitive functions and decision-making abilities.
What is the purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The purpose of a contract between a nurse and a client is to specify the participation and responsibilities of both parties. It outlines the expectations, contributions, and duties of each party involved in the professional relationship. This ensures clarity and mutual understanding. Choice B is incorrect as contracts do not indicate feeling tone but rather focus on the professional aspects. Choice C is incorrect because while contracts are legally binding, their primary purpose is not to prevent premature termination but to establish guidelines. Choice D is incorrect as contracts focus more on responsibilities and participation rather than specific roles.
When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.
How can the nurse best communicate to a client that he or she has been listening?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best way for the nurse to communicate to a client that he or she has been listening is by restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed. Restating helps the client validate the nurse's understanding of the communication, demonstrating active listening skills. Making judgments about the client's problem, as suggested in Choice B, can hinder effective communication by introducing bias and potential misinterpretation. Offering a leading question like in Choice C is not ideal for confirming understanding; it rather seeks more information. Choice D, simply saying 'I understand what you're saying,' may not convey active listening as effectively as restating the client's main feelings or thoughts, as it lacks the validation component present in restating.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which item is most important to remove before sending the client to surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Contact lenses. It is crucial to remove contact lenses before surgery to prevent corneal drying, especially with non-extended wear lenses. Leaving the hearing aid or artificial eye in place does not pose harm to the client during surgery. While wedding rings are typically covered with tape, leaving them on is acceptable. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario.
A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.
The healthcare provider recognizes that which of the following would be most appropriate to wear when providing direct care to a client with a cough?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing care to a client with a cough, it is crucial to wear a mask to protect oneself from inhaling respiratory droplets containing infectious agents. The primary mode of transmission for coughs is through airborne droplets, making a mask the most appropriate choice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections. Gloves and gowns are more relevant when there is a risk of contact with bodily fluids, which is not the main concern with a cough. Shoe covers are not necessary in this scenario as the transmission of respiratory infections is not linked to footwear. Therefore, wearing a mask is the best choice to prevent airborne transmission and ensure the safety of the healthcare provider.
The client with diverticulosis is being assisted by the nurse in selecting appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The food that should be avoided for a client with diverticulosis is Cucumber salad. Foods with seeds should be avoided as they can aggravate diverticulosis by causing irritation and inflammation in the diverticula. Choices A, B, and D are allowed and even beneficial. Bran cereal and fruit like fresh peaches can help prevent constipation, which is beneficial for individuals with diverticulosis. Yeast rolls are also acceptable unless the client has specific dietary restrictions related to yeast or gluten.
The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the registered nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate action for the registered nurse in this scenario is to report the behavior to the charge nurse. This allows for proper investigation and intervention. Inappropriate actions include notifying the police directly without following the chain of command (Choice A), monitoring without immediate action (Choice C), and confronting the assistant without involving a superior (Choice D). By reporting to the charge nurse, the situation is escalated appropriately within the healthcare setting, ensuring the well-being and safety of the client.
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.
The nurse is preparing a client for mammography. To prepare the client for a mammogram, the nurse should tell the client:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client undergoing a mammogram should be instructed to omit deodorants or powders beforehand because they can interfere with the imaging results. Answer A is correct as it aligns with the preparation needed before a mammogram to ensure accurate results. Answer B is incorrect because there is no requirement for fat intake restrictions before a mammogram. Answer C is incorrect because mammography does not replace the necessity of self-breast exams; both are crucial for maintaining breast health. Answer D is incorrect because a mammogram does not require higher doses of radiation than an x-ray. In fact, mammography uses a low dose of radiation to create images for breast examination.
In the emergency room, a nurse is responsible for triaging four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The 15-year-old with sternal bruises should receive priority in care as this client might be experiencing airway and oxygenation problems. Airway issues take precedence in triage. The 10-year-old with lacerations on the face, although looking bad, is not in immediate distress. The 34-year-old with a fractured femur should be immobilized but can be seen after the client with sternal bruising. The 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow can also be seen later as dislocated elbows are not life-threatening compared to potential airway compromise.
What can the nurse instruct the mother of a teething 9-month-old infant to relieve discomfort?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teething in infants can cause discomfort, but it is a normal process. Symptoms may include nighttime awakening, daytime restlessness, excess drooling, and temporary loss of appetite. The recommended approach to relieve teething discomfort includes providing cool liquids, a Popsicle, or hard foods like dry toast for chewing. These items can help soothe the infant's gums. Rubbing the gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water is not recommended as it can be harmful. OTC topical medications are unnecessary for teething discomfort. Scheduling a dental evaluation is not required solely for teething. It's important to avoid home remedies like baby aspirin and opt for safer options like cool liquids. If necessary, acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used under healthcare provider guidance to alleviate discomfort.
A man reports his wife is constantly cleaning, which interferes with family life. Friends avoid visiting due to feeling uncomfortable. The husband finds her cleaning even at night. The nurse should consult and recommend the husband help with therapy by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to decrease the stimuli in the home. The wife's behavior suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder, an anxiety disorder. By reducing stimuli in the environment, such as clutter or triggers that prompt cleaning, it helps in managing the condition and promoting a calmer atmosphere. Option A is incorrect as directly telling the wife to stop can escalate her anxiety. Option B is not the priority initially, as addressing the root cause is more crucial. Option D may reinforce the behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue.
What is an effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is encouraging daily exercise. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is an anxiety disorder, and exercise can help release emotional energy, limit the time available for maladaptive behaviors, and direct the client's attention outward. Discussing the repetitive actions (choice A) may reinforce the behavior by providing attention to it. Insisting the client not to perform the repetitive act (choice B) can increase anxiety and resistance, as abruptly stopping the behavior may be challenging. Informing the client that the act is not necessary (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety and could invalidate the client's experiences, leading to increased distress. Encouraging daily exercise is a proactive intervention that can help manage symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by addressing core features of the disorder and promoting overall well-being.
A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit. Stat lab values reveal Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, K+ 1.9, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. The nurse evaluates that the client is experiencing which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' The potassium level of 1.9 indicates low potassium levels, a condition known as hypokalemia. The other lab values are within normal ranges: Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. Hypernatremia (choice A) refers to high sodium levels, which are not present in this case. Myelosuppression (choice C) is a decrease in bone marrow activity, which is not indicated by the lab values provided. Leukocytosis (choice D) is an increase in white blood cells, which is also not present based on the given values.
A new nursing graduate indicates in charting entries that he is a licensed practical nurse, although he has not yet received the results of the licensing exam. The graduate's action can result in what type of charge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Fraud.' Identifying oneself as a nurse without a license defrauds the public and can lead to prosecution. A tort is a wrongful act in breach of a legal duty imposed by law; malpractice is the failure to act appropriately as a nurse or acting in a way that harm comes to the client; and negligence is failing to perform care. In this scenario, the key issue is the misrepresentation of licensure status, which constitutes fraud. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.
The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
The client with schizophrenia has become disruptive and requires seclusion. Which staff member can institute seclusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The registered nurse is the correct choice to institute seclusion for a client with schizophrenia. In healthcare settings, only a registered nurse or a physician can legally initiate seclusion. The security guard, licensed practical nurse, and nursing assistant do not have the authority to carry out this action. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.
A client with cancer develops xerostomia. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort associated with xerostomia by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Xerostomia is dry mouth, a common side effect in cancer patients. Providing a saliva substitute helps alleviate the discomfort associated with dry mouth by moistening the oral mucosa. Offering hard candy, as mentioned in choice A, can worsen xerostomia by increasing sugar content and potentially causing irritation. Administering analgesic medications, as in choice B, is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Splinting swollen joints, as in choice C, is irrelevant to xerostomia, which primarily affects the oral cavity.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.
Social support systems include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Social support systems involve external sources of support like call-in help lines, emotional assistance from others, and community support groups. These external resources provide individuals with assistance and comfort. Coping skills and verbalization for anger management are personal strategies that individuals use to manage emotions internally. While these skills can be beneficial, they are not considered part of external social support systems.
A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, 'I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.' Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse can raise the client's self-esteem by acknowledging the client's feelings and providing positive reinforcement. Choice C shows empathy and support by recognizing the client's strength and potential to learn. This response encourages the client to believe in her abilities and instills confidence. Choices A and B may come across as judgmental or critical, which can further lower the client's self-esteem. Choice D, while offering a solution, does not address the client's emotional needs or provide direct reassurance about her capabilities.
In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.
An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Barriers to reporting elder abuse include victim shame, fear of reprisals, fear of loss of caregiver, and lack of knowledge of agencies that provide services. Many elders fear that reporting abuse results in their placement in long-term care because the current caregiver is the abuser. Choice A is incorrect because knowledge of the frequency of elder abuse is not a significant factor in a victim's reluctance to report. Choice B is also incorrect; while some victims may have feelings of undeservedness, it is not a common primary barrier to reporting abuse. Choice C is incorrect as the lack of appropriate screening tools may hinder identification but is not a significant barrier for the client to admit being a victim. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported is a common and significant barrier for elderly clients to admit being a victim.
How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.
The nurse is caring for a client with laryngeal cancer. Which finding ascertained in the health history would not be common for this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diarrhea is not a common finding in clients with laryngeal cancer. Foul breath (A), dysphagia (B), and chronic hiccups (D) are expected findings associated with laryngeal cancer. Foul breath can result from tissue breakdown in the mouth and throat. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can occur due to the tumor's location affecting the swallowing mechanism. Chronic hiccups can be a symptom of irritation to the phrenic nerves from the cancer.
How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.
The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy is the correct choice because the radiation stays in the department, and the client is not radioactive. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who are radioactive or pose a risk due to radioactivity. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer (choice B) is radioactive, the client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer (choice C) is radioactive for approximately 72 hours, and the client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer (choice D) is also radioactive, especially right after the procedure. These options are not suitable for assignment to the pregnant nurse.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.
The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.
While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.
What type of relief behavior is Ashley using to cope with emotional conflict?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ashley is somatizing by experiencing emotional conflict as physical symptoms associated with severe anxiety. Somatizing involves converting emotions into physical symptoms. Acting out involves behaviors like anger, crying, and verbal abuse, not physical symptoms. Withdrawal is when one withdraws psychic energy in response to anxiety, not converting emotions into physical symptoms. Problem-solving occurs when anxiety is identified and the underlying need is addressed, not converting emotions into physical symptoms.
The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.
A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' In cases of suspected child abuse, bruises on both upper arms can be indicative of a child being shaken, as children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms. The presentation of a 10-month-old child being difficult to awaken, along with bruises on the upper arms, raises concern for inflicted injury. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario as they do not align with the concerning signs of suspected abuse indicated by the bruises and the child's altered level of consciousness.
A hospitalized client has just been informed that he has terminal cancer. He says to the nurse, 'There must be some mistake in the diagnosis.' The nurse determines that the client is demonstrating which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is denial. In this scenario, the client's statement indicates denial, which is a common reaction in Kübler-Ross's Stages of Grieving. Denial involves the refusal to accept or believe that a loss, such as a terminal illness diagnosis, is happening. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Anger involves feelings of resentment or frustration; Bargaining is an attempt to negotiate or make deals to avoid the situation; Acceptance is the final stage where the individual comes to terms with the reality of the situation.
When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.
What significant event occurs in the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship, the significant event is the identification of transference phenomenon. Transference phenomena are intensified in relationships with authority figures like nurses and physicians. Positive transferences may include a desire for affection and dependency, while negative transferences may involve hostility and competitiveness. It is crucial to recognize and address these transferences before progress and positive changes can be made in the working stage. The other choices are incorrect; the establishment of roles may occur in the working phase, placing the client within their family structure is not a key event in the orientation phase, and client agreement on the nurse's authority is not the primary focus during this phase.
A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.
A client reports hearing voices. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports hearing voices, it might indicate hallucinations. It is essential for the nurse to ask the client to describe what is happening to gain a better understanding of the hallucinations. This approach helps in assessing the severity and content of the hallucinations, which can guide further interventions. Touching the client without consent can be intrusive and may escalate the situation, violating the client's personal space. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue of hallucinations and can lead to potential risks if the client is distressed. Telling the client there are no voices denies their experience, invalidates their feelings, and can result in mistrust between the client and the nurse.
A health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant. The health care worker should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prevention of child abuse is centered on teaching parents how to care for their child and cope with the demands of infant care. Parenting classes can help build self-confidence, self-esteem, and coping skills. Parents benefit by understanding the developmental needs of their children, while learning how to manage their home environment more effectively. The classes also increase the parents' social contacts and teach about community resources. Contacting child protective services (Choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as there is no indication of abuse or neglect. Providing literature (Choice B) may not be as effective as parenting classes in addressing the mother's concerns. Consulting a therapist (Choice C) may be beneficial for underlying mental health issues, but parenting classes specifically focus on child care and coping skills, making Choice D the most suitable option in this situation.
A client who recently lost 50 pounds just received news that she is pregnant. A possible nursing diagnosis is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's recent weight loss and subsequent pregnancy could lead to concerns about weight regain and body image. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is 'Potential Situational Low Self-Esteem (related to fear of weight regain and pregnancy).' This diagnosis reflects the client's potential emotional response to the fear of losing the progress achieved through weight loss and dealing with changes in body image due to pregnancy. Options A and C imply that low self-esteem is already present, which is not supported by the information given. Option B is not as suitable as the client's self-esteem issues are more related to the fear of weight regain and pregnancy, making option D the best choice.
Client self-determination is the primary focus of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Client self-determination refers to the right of clients to make their own decisions about their health care. Nursing's advocacy for clients focuses on upholding this right by supporting and respecting the autonomy and self-determination of clients. This advocacy ensures that clients are empowered to participate in decision-making regarding their health. Confidentiality, while essential, is about maintaining the privacy of client information. Malpractice insurance is a protective measure for professionals in case of errors or negligence. Health care, though crucial for enabling client self-determination, is a broad term encompassing various services and not the primary focus when discussing the client's right to autonomy.
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