Free PN Safe and Effective Care Environment practice for Nclex Questions Management of Care (NCLEX PN). Answer 63 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.
Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. While the CDC plays a significant role in disease surveillance, reporting infectious diseases is primarily governed by individual state laws. The CDC's role is to provide support, guidance, and expertise to state health departments. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) primarily focus on biomedical and health-related research, not on mandating disease reporting. Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various agencies, but the responsibility for mandating disease reporting lies with individual states.
Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.
During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.
A Hispanic client brings her father to the clinic because he is becoming more forgetful. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The woman tells the nurse that she wants to try ginkgo biloba for her father before using prescription medications. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate response is to acknowledge the client's wishes and communicate them to the physician for consideration. It is important to be culturally sensitive and respect the client's preferences. Ginkgo biloba has shown some benefits in treating dementia, so it is essential to involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Choices A, B, and C are dismissive and fail to consider the client's perspective and cultural beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to engage in open communication and collaboration with clients to provide patient-centered care.
In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.
A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.
Which of the following indicates a hazard for a client on oxygen therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the client is wearing a synthetic gown. A synthetic gown might generate sparks of static electricity, which can be a fire hazard, especially in the presence of oxygen. Clients on oxygen therapy should wear cotton gowns to minimize the risk of fire. The other options are not hazards for a client on oxygen therapy: having a 'No Smoking' sign on the door promotes safety by preventing smoking, ensuring electrical equipment is grounded reduces the risk of electrical hazards, and removing matches decreases the risk of fire hazards.
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing goal for a client at risk for nutritional problems?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to promote healthy nutritional practices. This goal focuses on preventive measures to address the client's nutritional risk. Providing oxygen (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing nutritional problems. Treating complications of malnutrition (Choice C) involves addressing the consequences rather than preventing or managing the nutritional problems. Increasing weight (Choice D) would only be appropriate if the client is underweight; it does not address the broader aspect of promoting overall healthy nutritional practices.
Why is client and family communication and education concerning restraints essential?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Client and family communication and education concerning restraints are essential to encourage cooperation. When the client and family understand the purpose and expected benefits of restraints, they are more likely to cooperate. This understanding can help prevent well-meaning family members from releasing restraints due to confusion or lack of information. Therefore, choice C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because confusing both groups further, helping with coping and stress levels, and shifting responsibility to the client and family are not the primary goals of communication and education concerning restraints.
An LPN on a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) team is tasked with implementing strategies to reduce medication errors. Which of the following strategies would be most beneficial for the LPN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most beneficial strategy for the LPN on a CQI team to implement is to ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs. Organized and accurate incident reports are crucial in tracking and understanding why errors occurred. CQI teams utilize incident reports to develop new policies or enhance existing ones to standardize medical processes and reduce errors. Tracking individuals with medication errors (Choice A) may create a culture of blame rather than focusing on system improvements. Reminding staff of the five rights of medication administration (Choice B) is important for knowledge reinforcement but does not directly address the process improvement aspect. Double-checking documentation in the electronic medical record (Choice D) is necessary for accuracy but does not provide the detailed insights obtained from incident reports for process improvement.
While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.
Nurse Ann tells nurse Christine that one of her client's status is declining but that she will do her best to juggle her other two clients. Which action is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, when Nurse Ann informs Nurse Christine that a client's status is declining and she needs to attend to them, the most appropriate action for Nurse Christine is to inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed. By informing the supervisor, necessary adjustments can be made to ensure proper care for all clients. Offering to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a declining client and could lead to a delay in care. Asking other nurses for help (choice C) might not be the most efficient solution, as the supervisor is responsible for reassigning tasks. Nurse Ann continuing to care for all her assigned clients (choice D) may compromise the quality of care provided to the declining client and may spread her too thin, impacting all clients negatively.
Which statement about clinical pathways is inaccurate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that clinical pathways do not necessarily require daily updates. Clinical pathways can be customized to be updated daily, weekly, or at other intervals based on patient needs and facility protocols. Choice A is inaccurate as daily updates are not always mandatory for clinical pathways. Choices B, C, and D are accurate features of clinical pathways: they depict the expected client response to the diagnosis, aim for improvement or discharge, and are grounded in evidence-based practices to ensure optimal care.
Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of benevolence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Benevolence is taking action to help others. In this scenario, administering an immunization to a child, even though it may cause discomfort, aligns with the principle of benevolence as the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person's independence, and respecting autonomy means agreeing to respect an individual's right to determine their course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including the fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the ethical principle of beneficence rather than benevolence, which focuses on doing good for others without an expectation of something in return. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly align with the principle of benevolence.
A health care provider writes a medication prescription in a client's record. While transcribing the prescription, the nurse notes that the prescribed dose is three times higher than the recommended dose. The nurse calls the health care provider, who states that this is the dose that the client takes at home and that it is acceptable for this client's condition. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse has identified a significant discrepancy between the prescribed dose and the recommended dose. While the health care provider has justified the higher dose based on the client's home regimen, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure patient safety. If a nurse has concerns about a prescription being incorrect or potentially harmful, they should seek further clarification from the health care provider. Since the nurse still believes the dose is inappropriate after discussing with the health care provider, the next appropriate action is to contact the nursing supervisor. Continuing to transcribe the prescription without addressing the concern could jeopardize the client's safety. Asking another nurse to administer the medication without proper resolution of the dosage concern would also pose a risk to the client. While verifying the prescribed dose with the client is important, in this situation, the nurse should first escalate the issue to the nursing supervisor to ensure appropriate actions are taken.
A nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency's guidelines in the client's record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made a mistake or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider's prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought. Therefore, the correct statement to document is that the health care provider was contacted to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. Choices A, B, and C imply errors or mistakes on the part of the health care provider, which is not the focus of the documentation in this scenario.
A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'specific.' A specific test correctly identifies individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, since the lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, it means the test is good at ruling out the disease. 'Sensitive' (choice B) would be incorrect as sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (choice C) is incorrect as it describes the result rather than the test's characteristic. 'Marginal finding' (choice D) is unrelated to the concept of correctly identifying individuals without the disease.
A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should take which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the appropriate action when a client is not breathing and does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. CPR is considered an emergency treatment that can be provided without client consent in life-threatening situations. Calling the health care provider or nursing supervisor for directions, as well as administering oxygen without addressing the lack of breathing, would delay critical life-saving interventions. Therefore, administering CPR is the most urgent and necessary action to perform in this scenario.
A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.
Nail and foot care are essential in meeting the basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails. This assessment is crucial to identify abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia, dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or any other unusual appearances. Choice A is incorrect as a full-body assessment is broader and not specific to nail and foot care. Choice B is incorrect as lab work is not directly related to nail and foot assessments. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses only on foot corns and calluses, neglecting other important aspects of nail and foot care.
A nurse planning care for her assigned clients understands that which aspect is the purpose of the hospital's standards of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The purpose of the hospital's standards of care is to provide a broad direction for the overall practice of nursing that applies to all nursing situations, across specialty areas, and across the country. These standards guide the practice of nursing by outlining the expected level of care and professional performance. While identifying methods of treatment is important, it is usually specific to individual client needs and not the overarching goal of standards of care. Providing direction for care solely based on the client's diagnosis is limited to a particular patient's treatment plan and does not encompass the broader scope of nursing practice. Identifying new care methods based on current medical research is essential for advancing healthcare practices but is not the primary purpose of the hospital's standards of care.
The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.
A nurse is planning task assignments for the day. Which assignment is the least appropriate for the nursing assistant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The least appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant would be assisting a client with dysphagia in eating. This task requires specialized skills and knowledge to prevent complications such as choking and aspiration. Ambulating a client with Parkinson's disease, providing hygiene to a client with dementia, and assisting a client with an above-the-knee amputation in showering are tasks that a nursing assistant can safely perform without significant risk of complications. Assisting a client with dysphagia in eating involves higher risks and requires specific training, making it the least appropriate choice for a nursing assistant.
In a community hospital, a nurse is employed as a staff nurse and is supervised by a nurse manager. The nurse understands that in this position, the term authority most appropriately refers to which description?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to ensure that a decision is enforced. In the context of the nurse's position supervised by a nurse manager, having authority means having the official power to ensure that organizational decisions are carried out. Choice A, accepting responsibility for the actions of others, is more related to accountability rather than authority. Choice C, bearing the legal responsibility for others' performance of tasks, is more about legal liability rather than authority. Choice D, taking responsibility for what staff members do, is similar to choice A and is more about accountability rather than having the official power to enforce decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to the concept of authority in the context described.
A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse should assertively communicate her unavailability for overtime without being confrontational. Option A, "I'm not working overtime today," is too blunt and may come across as rude. Option C, "You know how I hate to work overtime," is not assertive but rather passive-aggressive. Option D, "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this," is a passive-aggressive response as it implies compliance while expressing discontent. Option B, "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime," is the most appropriate response as it clearly states the nurse's unavailability without unnecessary aggression.
A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.
When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.
How is the information documented on incident reports used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The information documented on incident reports is used for various purposes, including analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs. Incident reports provide valuable data that can be utilized in risk management, quality monitoring, and improvement programs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all correct as incident reports are used for analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs, respectively. Thus, the most comprehensive answer is 'all of the above.'
Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.
The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.
A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.
When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.
Which of the following statements by a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) indicates adequate understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for a client with GERD is, 'I should sit up after eating.' This helps prevent reflux by keeping the stomach contents down. Choice A is incorrect as eating right before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of reflux during the night. Choice B is incorrect because consuming large meals can lead to increased stomach pressure and worsen reflux symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because lying flat after eating can promote reflux due to gravity assisting the flow of stomach contents into the esophagus, worsening GERD.
To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.
The client with a diagnosis of hepatitis is experiencing pruritus. Which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pruritus, or itching, in clients with hepatitis can be alleviated by adding moisturizing agents to bath water. Baby oil helps soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing dryness and itching. Warm showers, as in choice A, can be drying to the skin if taken too frequently, making it less suitable than adding oil to the bath water. Applying powder, as mentioned in choice C, can exacerbate dryness rather than alleviate it. Choice D suggests a cool-water rinse after bathing, which can help in retaining moisture and is less drying compared to hot water rinses.
A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A gastroenterologist specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. Therefore, clients with digestive system diseases should consult a gastroenterologist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary system diseases are managed by urologists, female reproductive system diseases by gynecologists, and nervous system diseases by neurologists.
When managing time effectively, which of the following stimuli should the nurse respond to first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to attend to the care needs of the returning postoperative client just exiting the elevator first. In a healthcare setting, patient care should always take precedence, especially for complex or unstable clients requiring immediate assessment and care. The physician's loud verbal direction, the nursing supervisor going to a meeting, and unit staff leaving on a break are important but do not involve direct patient care. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize responding to the returning postoperative client to ensure their immediate needs are met.
When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.
After receiving a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After receiving a recent tattoo, screening for hepatitis is crucial due to the risk of blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed during the tattooing process. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen and is not directly related to receiving a tattoo. Herpes and syphilis are infections spread through direct contact, such as sexual contact, and are not typically associated with tattooing.
The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.
Ethical and moral issues concerning restraints include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'policies and procedures.' While policies and procedures are essential for managing restraints, they are not in themselves ethical or moral issues. The emotional impact on the client and family, the dignity of the client, and the client's quality of life are all ethical and moral concerns related to the use of restraints. These aspects focus on the well-being, respect, and rights of the individual, which are fundamental ethical considerations in healthcare practice. Choices A, B, and C are directly tied to ethical and moral considerations by highlighting the impact on individuals involved and their overall quality of life and dignity, making them key factors to address in ethical decision-making.
When are standard walkers typically used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
A syringe pump is a type of electronic infusion pump used to infuse fluids or medications directly from a syringe. This device is commonly used for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'the neonatal and pediatric populations.' Syringe pumps are commonly used in neonatal and pediatric populations because they allow for precise infusion of small volumes of medications or fluids at controlled rates. This is crucial for ensuring safety and accuracy in these delicate populations. Choice A is incorrect because syringe pumps are not limited to obstetrics; they are used in various healthcare settings. Choices B and C are incorrect because syringe pumps are not typically used for dilute antibiotics or large volumes of IV solutions. Instead, they are preferred for delivering small volumes accurately, making them ideal for neonatal and pediatric care.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a client with a new colostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Disturbed Body Image is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with a new colostomy. A new colostomy can significantly impact a person's body image and self-esteem due to the physical changes it brings. This can lead to emotional distress, adjustment issues, and concerns about body image. Excess Fluid Volume, Risk for Aspiration, and Urinary Retention are not directly related to the psychosocial impact of a new colostomy and are therefore not as relevant in this context. While Excess Fluid Volume, Risk for Aspiration, and Urinary Retention are important nursing diagnoses, they are not the priority when considering the psychological and emotional effects of a new colostomy.
Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.
What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.
Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.
Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is, '"I should wear earplugs during the test,"?' as MRI scanners produce loud noises requiring ear protection. Metal objects, including jewelry, are not allowed inside the MRI room due to safety concerns related to the magnetic field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is wrong because metal objects, including jewelry, are not permitted in the MRI room. Choices C and D are incorrect as having a pacemaker or an artificial hip raises concerns due to the magnetic field in MRI, requiring special precautions or considerations. It is crucial for individuals with such implants to inform their healthcare provider to assess the risks and determine the appropriate course of action.
Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is high HDL cholesterol. High HDL cholesterol levels are associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries, reducing plaque buildup. Low HDL cholesterol (choice B) is actually associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Low total cholesterol (choice C) or low triglycerides (choice D) are not indicators of a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease; in fact, extremely low total cholesterol levels may indicate other health issues.
The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.
When a client has a chest drainage system in place, where should the system be placed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A chest drainage system should be placed below the level of the client's chest to ensure proper drainage of fluid from the chest. Placing the system above the level of the chest or at the shoulders would not allow gravity to assist in the drainage process, potentially leading to complications such as fluid accumulation. Similarly, placing it at the level of the chest would not create the necessary gravity-dependent flow for effective drainage, which is crucial for the proper functioning of the chest drainage system.
While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when sensing a tingling sensation while lowering the bed with a comatose client is to unplug the bed's power source. This should be the initial step as there may be a fault in the bed's grounding. Removing the client from the bed immediately is not safe until the electrical issue is resolved. Notifying the biomedical department is important but should come after ensuring the immediate safety of the client. Turning off the oxygen is not necessary unless there is a specific issue related to oxygen delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Which NSAID is comparable to morphine in efficacy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Toradol. Toradol is the first injectable NSAID that has been found to be comparable to morphine in terms of efficacy. Feldene (choice A) is not known for being comparable to morphine in efficacy. Stodal (choice B) is a homeopathic cough syrup and not an NSAID. Elavil (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant and not an NSAID, so it is not comparable to morphine in efficacy. Therefore, Toradol is the most appropriate choice as it matches the description provided in the question.
Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.
A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O™, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.
Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.
The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.
A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'medication instruction.' This service involves educating the client on how to properly take their medications, which requires a certain level of expertise and skill. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation to physician's visits are considered unskilled services as they do not involve specialized knowledge or training. In contrast, medication instruction is a skilled service that necessitates specific training to ensure the client's safety and adherence to their medication regimen.
Common problems for supervisors include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Common problems for supervisors include micromanaging staff members, wanting to control the style in which a staff member performs a task, and not delegating tasks effectively. These behaviors can hinder team building and overall effectiveness. Facilitating the development of staff members, on the other hand, is a positive attribute for a supervisor as it helps in nurturing the skills and growth of the team members. Therefore, the correct answer is 'the supervisor facilitates development of staff members' as this is not a common problem but a desirable quality in a supervisor.
When documenting in the client's record, what type of information should be recorded?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When documenting in a client's record, it is crucial to record objective information. Objective information is factual, based on observations and measurable data. This type of information is essential for accurate and effective communication among healthcare professionals involved in the client's care. Choices A and B, educated predictions of outcomes and personal opinions, are subjective in nature and may not provide an accurate representation of the client's condition. Choice D, subjective information, includes personal feelings, interpretations, and opinions, which are not ideal for documentation as they can be biased and unreliable.
When caring for clients with Buck"s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for clients with Buck"s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck"s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.
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