Free PN Safe and Effective Care Environment practice for Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions (NCLEX PN). Answer 63 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
A safety measure to implement when transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure involves moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and having the client stand and pivot on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls and promoting a safer transfer. Choice A is incorrect because walking the client is unsafe and not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as pivoting the client on his affected extremity can lead to injury or falls due to weakness or lack of control. Choice D is incorrect as it puts the client at risk by requiring them to push their body, which may not be feasible or safe for someone with hemiparesis.
What should be included in the assessment of a client with a cast?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with a cast, it is crucial to check for capillary refill to ensure adequate circulation. Warm toes indicate good circulation, while the absence of discomfort suggests the cast is not causing any pain or undue pressure on the client. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the essential components of assessing a client with a cast.
What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A nursing advocate does not make decisions for others but instead empowers individuals to make decisions for themselves. By encouraging individuals to make their own decisions and supporting them in this process, nursing advocates uphold the principle of self-determination. This approach respects the autonomy and independence of individuals in managing their care. Therefore, the correct answer is to 'encourage persons to make decisions for themselves and act with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the role of a nursing advocate in promoting patient autonomy and self-determination.
What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
What is a predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tobacco use is a well-established predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue. Smoking or chewing tobacco can lead to the development of oral cancers, including those affecting the tongue. Obesity, sun exposure, and eating sweets are not directly linked to an increased risk of tongue cancer. Obesity may be associated with other types of cancer, sun exposure can lead to skin cancer, and eating sweets is not a known risk factor for tongue cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is tobacco use, as it has a strong association with the development of tongue cancer, making it a significant predisposing factor.
A primigravida begins labor when her family is unavailable and she is alone. She is very upset that her family is not with her. Which approach can the nurse take to meet the client's needs at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to ask whether another individual wants to be the client's support person. This empowers the client to choose someone to be with her until her family can join her, providing the needed support and comfort. Assuring her that a nursing staff member will be with her at all times (Choice B) may not fully address her emotional needs for familiar support. Telling her you will try to locate her family (Choice C) may not be feasible in the immediate situation and may not provide immediate emotional support. While reinforcing the woman's confidence in her own abilities (Choice D) is important, it may not fully address her current need for emotional support and presence of a companion.
A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.
What condition is mammography used to detect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mammography is specifically used to detect tumors or abnormal growths, especially in breast tissue. It is not a tool for identifying pain, edema, or epilepsy. Therefore, the correct answer is 'tumor.' Pain is a symptom, edema is swelling, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder; none of these are conditions typically detected through mammography.
Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction, however, is not a primary concern when treating pain in terminally ill clients. Terminally ill patients are usually not at risk of developing addiction to opioids due to their short life expectancy and the focus on pain management rather than the potential for addiction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'addiction.' Choices A, B, and C are essential considerations when managing clients on opioids for pain control.
The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, the conversation on the elevator could lead to a breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other options, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not being breached in this instance, making them incorrect choices.
In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.
The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.
Who is responsible for obtaining the signature from the client on the informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the physician. It is the physician's responsibility to ensure that the client provides informed consent by obtaining their signature. While nurses play a crucial role in the healthcare team, their responsibility lies in verifying that the consent process has been completed correctly and advocating for the client. The staff nurse, charge nurse, and LPN do not have the authority to obtain the client's signature on the informed consent form, as this is within the scope of practice of the physician.
The nurse is caring for a client recovering from a stroke who recently regained consciousness. The client is having difficulty communicating verbally with the team. Which of the following actions would be least appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the least appropriate action would be to wait for the physician's order for speech therapy before assisting with the appropriate documentation. The nurse should start by collecting client data without needing the physician's order, use documents to provide information for the referral, and actively participate in the client referral process. Waiting for the physician's order unnecessarily delays potentially crucial therapy for the client's recovery, affecting the timeliness and effectiveness of care. Therefore, choice C is the least appropriate as immediate action is required in such situations.
The nurse is caring for a client awaiting test results on a biopsy. The client is unconscious, and the physician informs the client's spouse that the biopsy came back positive for cancer. The spouse asks the nurse if they will not share this news with the client because they would prefer the client be unaware of the diagnosis. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is, "For ethical reasons, I am unable to withhold this information from the client."? The ethical principle of veracity requires that the nurse is truthful with the client and does not withhold information even if it is requested by the family. Choice A is incorrect because seeking a psychiatrist's confirmation is not necessary to uphold the ethical principle of truth-telling. Choice C is incorrect as implying that signing paperwork overrides the nurse's ethical obligation to be honest with the client is inappropriate. Choice D is also incorrect as a durable power of attorney is not relevant in this situation where the spouse is asking the nurse to withhold information.
A nurse and a nursing assistant enter a client's room to provide care and find the client lying on the floor. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client sustains a fall, the nurse must first assess the client. The nurse should check the client's level of consciousness and vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and provide appropriate care promptly. This immediate assessment is crucial in ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed. Asking the nursing assistant to complete an incident report (choice A) is not the priority as the client's condition needs immediate attention. Contacting the unit secretary to call the client's health care provider (choice C) can be done after the initial assessment has been completed. Asking the nursing assistant to assist in getting the client back to bed (choice D) should only be considered after ensuring the client is stable and safe to move.
A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.
While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.
Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.
A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.
How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.
After assigning tasks, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's primary responsibility after assigning tasks is to follow up with each staff member regarding the task's performance and outcomes. This ensures accountability and quality care delivery. Allowing staff members to make judgments independently can compromise patient safety if they lack the necessary knowledge or experience. While documenting task completion is important, it should follow the follow-up to assess outcomes. Assigning incomplete tasks to the next shift is not ideal as it may result in unmet patient needs and increased workload for the next shift.
When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, a nursing assistant should be positioned on which side of the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, the nursing assistant should stand on the affected side, which in this case is the client's right side. This position allows the assistant to provide proper support and assistance. Standing behind the client (Choice A) is incorrect as the assistant should be on the affected side. Positioning the free hand on the client's shoulder (Choice B) is a correct action as it helps in pulling the client toward them in case of a forward fall. Grasping the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back (Choice D) is also correct to provide support and stability during ambulation.
A nurse is planning client assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks based on state nursing practice act guidelines and job descriptions provided by the employing agency. The nursing assistant is trained to measure, collect, and strain urine, making recording urinary output for a client with renal calculi a suitable task for the nursing assistant. This task falls within the nursing assistant's role description. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy involve a higher level of skill and knowledge, beyond the scope of a nursing assistant. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires interpretation and clinical judgment, which is typically not within the nursing assistant's role. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test involves providing detailed information and education, which is usually the responsibility of a licensed nurse or other qualified healthcare provider.
A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.
A client with a spinal cord injury is preparing to return home from the rehabilitation unit. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates a need for further teaching regarding autonomic dysreflexia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If the client develops signs or symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, they need to be addressed immediately. If the family member is not able to relieve them, a healthcare provider needs to be notified immediately. The statement 'I should observe whether symptoms worsen' indicates a passive approach and does not address the urgency of the situation. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they involve active measures to address autonomic dysreflexia, such as raising the client to a sitting position, checking for a fecal impaction, and looking for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing.
A licensed practical nurse arrives at work at the long-term care center and is immediately faced with several activities that require attention. Which activity will the nurse attend to first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority should be attending to task assignments for the day. This ensures that client care can begin promptly and efficiently. Stocking the medication closet is important but can be done after ensuring task assignments are clear. Phone messages from employee health services and a client's wife, although important, can be addressed after organizing the staff for client care.
A nurse sees another nurse changing an intravenous (IV) solution because the wrong solution is infusing into the client. The nurse who changed the IV solution does not report the error. What should the nurse who observed the error do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. Ensuring client safety is paramount, and all errors must be reported to the health care provider, but this is not the initial action. The client should also be assessed immediately. The nurse who discovered the error should complete an incident report and make appropriate documentation in the client's record. If the nurse who observed the error finds out that it will not be reported, it may be necessary to involve the supervisor. Therefore, the best course of action initially is to communicate with the nurse who made the error to understand her intentions regarding reporting.
A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering the medication, the nurse must first take which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering medications through an NG tube, the nurse must first check the placement of the tube to prevent aspiration. This is done by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking the client's apical pulse is unrelated to NG tube medication administration. Checking when the last feeding was given is important but not a priority before administering medications. Checking when the last medications were given is also not directly related to ensuring the safe administration of medications through an NG tube. Ensuring the correct placement of the tube is crucial to prevent complications such as pulmonary aspiration.
A client has experienced a CVA with right hemiparesis and is ready for discharge from the hospital to a long-term care facility for rehab. To provide optimal continuity of care, the nurse should do all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure optimal continuity of care for a client transitioning to a long-term care facility for rehab after a CVA, the nurse plays a crucial role in communication. Documenting the current functional status is essential for the receiving facility to plan appropriate care. Copying relevant parts of the medical record for transport provides important background information. Phoning a report directly to the facility is a direct and effective way to communicate the client's condition and care plan. However, having the physician fax a report to the receiving facility introduces an extra step that may delay essential information transfer and increase the risk of miscommunication. Therefore, it is not the optimal choice for ensuring seamless continuity of care.
The nurse is preparing to administer the 9 am dose of IV antibiotics when she notes the IVAC cord is frayed with wiring visible. What action should be her priority for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to immediately discontinue the use of the IVAC pump and obtain a replacement because the frayed cord poses a safety risk to the client. Continuing to use the pump with visible wiring could lead to electric shock or other serious harm to the client. Notifying maintenance to come and check the pump immediately (Choice A) may cause unnecessary delays in ensuring the client's safety. Continuing with the administration of the antibiotic and filling out an equipment maintenance request (Choice B) is unsafe as it ignores the immediate danger. Tagging the equipment for maintenance (Choice D) does not address the urgent need to protect the client from harm.
A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2⅜ inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.
When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.
Which medication might the healthcare provider prescribe if the client expresses discomfort with being in the enclosed space of a CT scanner?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Valium (diazepam) is a sedative that might be prescribed to help a client who feels uncomfortable in the confined space of a CT scanner. Diazepam can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, making the scanning process more tolerable. Clozaril (clozapine), Catapres (clonidine), and Lasix (furosemide) are not sedatives and wouldn't be appropriate for alleviating discomfort related to being in an enclosed space. Clozaril is an antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, Catapres is a blood pressure medication, and Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, so they are not indicated for this situation.
The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.
A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.
After securing the client's safety from a faulty electric bed, what should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After ensuring the client's safety from the faulty electric bed, the nurse should prioritize preparing an incident report. This report documents the details of what happened and is crucial for quality improvement and risk management. Choice A, discussing the matter with the client's significant others, may be important in some cases but is not the immediate priority after a safety incident. Choice B, documenting the incident in the client's record, is necessary but should be preceded by preparing an incident report. Choice C, notifying the physician, is important but not as urgent as preparing the incident report to ensure timely reporting and investigation of the safety issue.
What is distraction therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Distraction therapy involves directing attention away from pain towards positive stimuli, which can help reduce the perception of pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately defines distraction therapy. Cognitive reappraisal (Choice B) involves changing the way one thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact, which is different from distraction therapy. Choice C is incorrect because distraction therapy does not involve replacing images of pain with other images, but rather focusing on something unrelated. Choice D is incorrect as distraction therapy does not necessarily involve medication or meditation, but rather the redirection of attention.
The nurse notices that a family is waiting at the nursing station desk for its loved one to be brought to the unit for admission during a change-of-shift report. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To protect the privacy of clients and the confidentiality of the information shared in a change-of-shift report, the family should be asked to wait in the client's room. This ensures that sensitive information is not overheard. The report should be resumed only after the family has left the desk area to maintain confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect as bringing coffee does not address the issue of maintaining confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as standing or sitting in the station does not prevent the family from overhearing confidential information. Choice D is incorrect as the Emergency Department waiting room is not the appropriate setting for waiting during a unit admission.
Delegation of tasks to appropriate personnel allows the nurse to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Delegating tasks to appropriate personnel is essential for a nurse to keep other team members productive. By assigning tasks that align with the specific roles and responsibilities of team members, the nurse can enhance work effectiveness and efficiency. Option A is incorrect because delegation is not primarily about ensuring tasks are evenly distributed but rather about utilizing team members' skills effectively. Option C is incorrect as maintaining tight control of all aspects of the workflow can hinder teamwork and limit individual growth. Option D is incorrect because effective delegation involves empowering team members to make decisions within their scope of practice, rather than solely recognizing the importance of their roles.
A 20-year-old male client had a diving accident with subsequent paraplegia. He says to the nurse, "No woman will ever want to marry me now."? Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is 'Tell me more about your feelings on this issue.' This answer is the most therapeutic as it encourages the client to express his emotions and concerns, fostering a supportive and open dialogue between the client and the nurse. Option A may come across as dismissive and does not directly address the client's emotional state. Option B, while positive, oversimplifies the client's complex feelings. Option C focuses only on physical appearance, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the client's emotional well-being. Therefore, the most therapeutic response is to encourage further discussion about the client's feelings.
What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.
A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.
A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, the best nursing intervention is to identify the child's home bedtime rituals and follow them. Preschool-age children often have specific bedtime routines that provide comfort and promote sleep. This familiarity can help create a sense of security in an unfamiliar hospital environment. Choice A, turning off the room light and closing the door, may increase the child's fear of the dark and being alone. Choice B, engaging the child in calming activities before bedtime, is a better choice than tiring them with play exercises. Choice D, encouraging relaxation techniques like deep breathing exercises, although helpful, may not be as effective as following the child's familiar bedtime routines.
For a client requiring total oral care, it is important for the nurse to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To provide total oral care to a client, the nurse should first assemble all necessary equipment. Placing the client in a side-lying position helps fluids to easily flow out or pool in the side of the mouth for suctioning, thus preventing aspiration. Additionally, placing a towel under the client's chin and a curved basin against the chin helps to maintain cleanliness during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be placed in a side-lying position, not a semi-Fowler's position which is used for respiratory issues. Choice B is incorrect as it does not emphasize the importance of proper positioning for effective oral care. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the procedure by focusing only on cleaning the mouth without considering the importance of positioning and preparation.
A young boy is recently diagnosed with a seizure disorder. Which of the following statements by the boy's mother indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "I should lay him on his back during a seizure."? This statement indicates a need for further teaching because a client having a seizure should be turned to the side to prevent aspiration of secretions. Choices A, B, and D are correct. Getting plenty of rest helps in managing seizures, having a medical alert bracelet informs others about the condition in case of emergency, and loosening clothing during a seizure ensures better air circulation and prevents injury. These actions demonstrate adequate understanding of the teaching provided.
Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.
What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.
Where do the vast majority of deaths resulting from unintentional poisoning occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Toddlers.' Toddlers are at the highest risk of unintentional poisoning due to their natural curiosity, explorative behavior, and lack of awareness of potential dangers. Infants are typically closely monitored, teens are more aware of risks, and adults generally have better judgment and understanding of hazardous substances, making them less susceptible to unintentional poisoning. Therefore, toddlers, being inquisitive and unaware of risks, are the most vulnerable group in terms of unintentional poisoning incidents.
Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
Ethical and moral issues concerning restraints include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'policies and procedures.' While policies and procedures are important for guidance and structure, they do not inherently involve ethical or moral considerations. The emotional impact on the client and family, the dignity of the client, and the client's quality of life are all directly related to ethical and moral concerns when it comes to the use of restraints. These factors are crucial in ensuring that the use of restraints is not only physically necessary but also ethically justifiable and respects the individual's rights and well-being. Therefore, options A, B, and C are all aspects that touch upon ethical and moral dimensions in the context of restraints.
Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when consumed by a client with an ileostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is coffee. Coffee can cause diarrhea in clients with an ileostomy due to its stimulating effect on the digestive system, leading to increased bowel movements. Eggs, fish, and garlic are less likely to cause diarrhea in individuals with an ileostomy. However, they may contribute to odor due to the way they are digested and broken down in the body, affecting the smell of stool output but not necessarily causing diarrhea.
What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.
When should the biohazard emblem be affixed to containers according to the orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'when there is presence of blood and body fluids.' When handling body substances like blood and body fluids, the risk of transmission of infections increases. Federal regulations mandate warning labels on containers to alert employees and waste collectors. The biohazard emblem consists of a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, wound drainage, feces, and urine are examples of body fluids that can transmit infections and diseases to others. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the presence of the biohazard emblem is specifically linked to the handling of blood and body fluids, not to droplet precautions, contact isolation, or airborne transmission.
When making an occupied bed, what is important for the nurse to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When making an occupied bed, using a bath blanket or top sheet is important as it keeps the client warm and provides privacy, ensuring their comfort and dignity. Keeping the bed in the low position is crucial for the safety of the client, preventing falls and injuries. Constantly keeping side rails raised on both sides is unnecessary and may restrict the client's movement unnecessarily. Moving back and forth from one side to the other when adjusting the linens is inefficient and disrupts the workflow; it is more effective to work systematically from one side to the other to ensure proper bed-making.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Impaired Physical Mobility.' As Parkinson's disease progresses, clients may experience a shuffling gait and rigidity, leading to impaired physical mobility. This nursing diagnosis is relevant to address the functional limitations that may arise. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease but rather with spinal cord injuries. 'Hypothermia' is a condition of abnormally low body temperature and is not a common complication of Parkinson's disease. 'Impaired Dentition' refers to dental issues and is not directly related to the progression of Parkinson's disease.
The LPN is caring for a 32-year-old female client who is 8 hours post-op after a tonsillectomy. Which of these actions would be appropriate for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to inform the client that ear pain may occur and is normal after a tonsillectomy. Referred pain in the ear is common due to related nerve pathways. It is essential to educate the client about this to alleviate concerns. Providing ice water and a straw is not recommended as they may irritate the throat and disturb the healing process. Hot beverages like tea should also be avoided for the same reason. While monitoring vitals every 15 minutes is crucial in the immediate postoperative period for early identification of any complications, it is not the most appropriate action in this scenario where addressing the client's concerns and providing education is key.
The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.
Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'urine.' Urine output is routinely measured to assess renal function and fluid balance. Choices A, B, and C are types of fluid output that are typically measured in a clinical setting. Chest tube drainage is monitored to evaluate drainage from the chest cavity, emesis refers to vomitus which can indicate gastrointestinal issues, and evaporative water from the respiratory tract is considered insensible loss and is not directly measured but estimated in overall fluid balance assessments.
The LPN is caring for a client with an NG tube, and the RN administers evening medications through the NG tube. The client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After administering medication through an NG tube, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to advise the client to lie down in 1 hour. Choice B is incorrect because waiting only 30 minutes may not provide sufficient time for the medications to be fully absorbed, as the recommended time is 30 minutes. Choice C is misleading as it incorrectly suggests that lying down in about 30 minutes is acceptable, which could compromise medication effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide accurate information regarding the appropriate timing for lying down after NG tube medication administration, potentially leading to decreased medication absorption.
Which of the following devices may be applicable to a bedridden patient to address potential venous insufficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a bedridden patient with potential venous insufficiency, sequential compression devices (SCDs) and compression stockings are appropriate choices. SCDs help improve venous return from the lower extremities by applying sequential pressure, aiding circulation. Compression stockings also assist in preventing blood from pooling in the legs by applying pressure to support venous return. Shear-reducing mattresses are not directly related to managing venous insufficiency, as they are designed to reduce friction and shear forces on the skin to prevent pressure ulcers. Non-skid socks are primarily used for fall prevention and have no direct impact on venous insufficiency.
When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.
A case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure might include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a case management clinical pathway for congestive heart failure, the focus is on providing medical care and support to the patient. Choices A, B, and C are integral parts of managing congestive heart failure. Physician follow-up appointments with transportation ensure continuity of care, client education about medication use is crucial for adherence, and a nutritional consult helps in managing the patient's diet. However, insurance review for reimbursement is not typically part of the clinical pathway as it pertains to financial aspects and is usually handled by billing departments or external agencies. Therefore, the correct answer is 'insurance review for reimbursement.'
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