Free PN Physiological Integrity practice for Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day (NCLEX PN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and
Which dietary consideration is most important for the nurse to teach to a client with hypothyroidism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Increase fiber.' In hypothyroidism, clients often experience constipation due to decreased metabolic rate. Increasing fiber in the diet can help alleviate constipation. Choice A, 'Increase carbohydrate intake,' is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase carbohydrate intake in hypothyroidism. Choice B, 'Increase fluid intake,' is not directly related to managing hypothyroidism, although adequate hydration is generally important for overall health. Choice C, 'Avoid shellfish,' is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to its iodine content, not hypothyroidism.
Which is an example of a sentinel event?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.
The client is being discharged after a concussion. Which of the following symptoms should be reported?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Difficulty waking up' because it indicates a change in consciousness, which is a concerning symptom following a concussion. Reporting this symptom is crucial as it may signify a more severe head injury. 'Headache (3/10 on the pain scale)' may be common after a concussion but is not as urgent as a change in consciousness. 'Bruising on knees and elbows' is likely unrelated to the concussion and not a priority for reporting. 'Achy feeling all over' is a vague symptom and not specific to a concerning change in the client's condition post-concussion.
A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.
A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.
The nurse observes a nursing assistant performing AM care for a client with a new leg cast. Which action by the assistant will the nurse intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills. Covering the leg with a blanket can prevent the evaporation of heat from the new cast, which can lead to skin irritation or discomfort. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hand is appropriate as it helps in providing support and prevents unnecessary pressure on the cast. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing is also acceptable to protect the area from getting wet. Elevating the cased leg on two pillows helps reduce swelling and promotes circulation, making it a suitable action.
Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.
The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.
On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.
A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: '"The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."? This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.
Which of the following food selections would need to be removed from a tray for a client recovering from thyroidectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a fresh apple. After a thyroidectomy, it is important to avoid hard and crunchy foods like apples due to the proximity of the esophagus to the surgical site. Apples can be difficult to chew and swallow, posing a risk of injury or discomfort to the patient. V8 juice, mustard greens, and ice cream are softer options that would be more suitable for a client recovering from thyroidectomy.
A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.
After an escharotomy of the forearm, what is the priority nursing assessment for the client who has returned to your unit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "Tissue perfusion." After an escharotomy, the priority assessment is to ensure adequate tissue perfusion to the affected limb. Escharotomy is performed to relieve circulatory compromise by cutting through the eschar, so monitoring tissue perfusion is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the procedure and prevent complications. Assessing for infection is important but comes after ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Checking the incision is necessary but assessing tissue perfusion takes precedence. Pain assessment is important but not the priority compared to assessing tissue perfusion to prevent ischemic complications.
A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'No action is necessary.' In this scenario, the fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape observed is an early deceleration resulting from head compression. Early decelerations are benign and typically do not require any intervention as they mirror the contraction pattern. It is essential to closely observe both the mother and the baby. Administering O2 (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not required for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is not needed for this type of deceleration, as it is a normal response to head compression during labor.
Which of the following terms refers to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A contusion is a soft tissue injury caused by blunt force. It is an injury that does not break the skin, caused by a blow, and characterized by swelling, discoloration, and pain. The immediate application of cold might limit the development of a contusion. A strain is a muscle pull from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress. A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. A dislocation is a condition where the articular surfaces of the bones forming a joint are no longer in anatomical contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 'contusion' as it specifically relates to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force.
Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.
The nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The client reports nausea and complains of surgical site pain at a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. The client's employer is present in the room and states he is paying for the insurance and wants to know what pain medication has been prescribed by the physician. Which of the following is the appropriate nurse response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate nurse response is to explain to the employer that private information cannot be released and ask the employer to step out while conducting the assessment. This approach respects the client's privacy while still acknowledging the employer. The employer's payment for insurance does not grant rights to confidential information. Sharing information without permission violates the client's right to privacy under HIPAA. Option A is incorrect as it compromises the client's confidentiality by sharing private medical information. Option B is inappropriate and unprofessional as it does not address the situation respectfully. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's immediate needs and assumes the client's consent without proper communication.
The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.
The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.
Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.
The client seeks advice from the nurse regarding issues with flatus due to colostomy. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is yogurt. Yogurt can help reduce gas formation in clients with a colostomy. High-fiber foods like bran can stimulate peristalsis and increase flatulence, which is not helpful in this situation. Cruciferous vegetables, such as cabbage, broccoli, and kale, and beans tend to increase gas formation. Carbonated beverages, along with smoking, chewing gum, and drinking fluids with a straw, can also increase gas formation. Therefore, the nurse should recommend yogurt to help alleviate the client's issues with flatus.
A physician orders a serum creatinine for a hospitalized client. The nurse should explain to the client and his family that this test:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum creatinine level should be 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl, and it does not vary with increased protein intake, so it is a better indicator of renal function than the BUN. Choice A is incorrect as a serum creatinine level of 4.0 to 5.5 mg/dl is not normal. Choice B is incorrect as serum creatinine is not affected by increased protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as serum creatinine primarily reflects renal function, not fluid volume status.
One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, it is crucial to prevent infiltration of calcium to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing. Hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously (Choice A) to prevent adverse effects. The correct amount of potassium to be mixed in a liter of fluid is no more than 60 mEq, making Choice B incorrect. While monitoring the client's digitalis dosage for potential adjustments due to IV calcium administration is important, the statement suggesting an increased dosage is incorrect as IV calcium diminishes digitalis's action, making Choice D incorrect.
The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.
A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid which of the following foods?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid foods high in calcium to prevent the formation of more stones. Cheese is high in calcium, so it should be avoided. Lettuce, apples, and broccoli are not typically associated with high calcium content and are safe options for individuals with urinary tract calculi. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese. Choices A, C, and D are not high in calcium and are safe for consumption by individuals with urinary tract calculi.
Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.
A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102°F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.
Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.
A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.
Ten-year-old Jackie is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever. She relates a history of 'a sore throat about a month ago.' Bed rest with bathroom privileges is prescribed. Which of the following nursing assessments should be given the highest priority when assessing Jackie's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring Jackie's cardiac status is of the highest priority in a patient with rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can lead to permanent cardiac damage, making it crucial to closely monitor the heart. Assessing for signs of carditis, such as murmurs or other cardiac symptoms, is essential. The second priority is evaluating joint symptoms for the presence of polyarthritis and pain, which are common manifestations of rheumatic fever. While assessing Jackie's response to hospitalization is important for her emotional well-being, it is not the highest priority. The presence of a macular rash, although relevant, is not as high a priority as monitoring cardiac status or assessing joint symptoms.
A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.
Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.
Which system is primarily affected by tuberculosis (Mycobacterium)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, primarily affects the respiratory system. This aerobic bacillus thrives in highly oxygenated body sites, such as the lungs, growing ends of bones, and the brain. The bacillus is airborne, making the lungs a common site for infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as tuberculosis predominantly impacts the respiratory system and rarely involves the stomach, heart, or skin.
What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.
A young female teenager describes a brutal assault and rape to the nurse on duty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a patient describes a brutal assault and rape, the first priority should be to provide emotional support and create a safe and supportive environment. This helps the patient feel secure and cared for, which is crucial for their well-being at that moment. Checking with the case manager about police intervention should come after ensuring the patient's immediate emotional needs are addressed. Cleaning the patient's wounds, though important, can be secondary to providing emotional stabilization. Referring the patient to a counselor specializing in trauma is also crucial for long-term support, but the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support and stability.
Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.
A patient has recently been prescribed Lidocaine Hydrochloride. Which of the following symptoms may occur with an overdose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Confusion and fatigue.' Lidocaine Hydrochloride, when taken in excess, can lead to symptoms such as confusion and fatigue. It affects the central nervous system, leading to these cognitive and physical impairments. Choice A ('Memory loss and lack of appetite') is incorrect because memory loss is not a common symptom of Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose, and lack of appetite is not a typical effect. Choice C ('Heightened reflexes') is incorrect as Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose usually depresses reflexes rather than heightening them. Choice D ('Tinnitus and spasticity') is incorrect as tinnitus and spasticity are not commonly associated with Lidocaine Hydrochloride overdose.
A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.
The power a healthcare professional exerts when working to accomplish goals and effect change in an agency or policy is considered what type of power?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Political power is the correct answer in this scenario. It stems from the ability to navigate systems, agencies, or policies to bring about change. Personal power is related to charisma and self-confidence in informal leadership roles. Positional power comes from holding a specific authority in a formal position. Professional power is derived from expertise in a particular area of practice. Therefore, in the context of effecting change in an agency or policy, political power is the most relevant type of power.
The nurse is caring for a preschool child who is being treated in the hospital for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). In planning the client's care, the nurse should recognize that the child is likely to view this illness as?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Punishment. Preschool children often see illness as a form of punishment, especially when they are unable to understand the cause of their sickness. This perception is rooted in their limited cognitive abilities and understanding of health concepts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because preschool children are less likely to associate illness with disturbance to body image, rejection from parents, or changes in routine with friends. These options are not developmentally appropriate for how preschoolers typically interpret illness.
A child presents to the school nurse with left knee pain after suffering a fall on the playground. Which action should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Comparing the appearance of the left knee to the right knee is the most appropriate initial action as it provides a baseline for assessing any visible differences such as swelling, bruising, or deformities. This comparison helps the nurse identify any acute changes in the affected knee's appearance after the fall. Instructing the child to extend the affected knee (Choice A) may worsen the pain or cause further injury. Performing range of motion exercises on both knees (Choice B) could exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until a proper assessment is done. Having the child soak the affected knee in warm water (Choice D) is not the priority at this stage as assessing for any physical changes is more crucial.
The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.
Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.
The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.
An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.
The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.
Which infection control measure is the priority for the nurse to implement in the care provided for a child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority control measure for the nurse to implement in caring for a child with bacterial meningitis is ensuring that gowns and masks are worn by all personnel in the child's room. This measure is crucial as the child with bacterial meningitis is contagious for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics, necessitating airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers and other patients. Placing the child in a private room (Choice A) is important but secondary to preventing infection transmission. Restricting visitors to parents only (Choice C) is also significant but not as critical as ensuring proper infection control measures. While hand washing (Choice D) is essential, the immediate need to prevent airborne transmission in the child's room takes precedence.
A 3-day post-operative client with a Left Knee Replacement is complaining of being chilled and nauseated. Her TPR is 100.4-94-28 and Blood Pressure is 146/90. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to call the surgeon immediately. The client's symptoms of being chilled and nauseated, along with an elevated temperature (100.4°F), could indicate an infection following the knee replacement surgery. In this scenario, prompt action is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Calling the surgeon allows for further assessment, possible diagnostic tests, and appropriate interventions to be initiated. Administering Tylenol or offering blankets and fluids may temporarily alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Assessing the surgical site is important but not as urgent as involving the surgeon in this situation.
A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.
A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's current Lithium levels. Which of the following values is outside the therapeutic range?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1.3 mEq/L. The therapeutic range for Lithium levels typically falls between 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Values below or above this range can lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are within the therapeutic range of 1.0-1.2 mEq/L, making them appropriate levels for patient care.
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.
A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.
Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.
A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.
A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.
Herbal therapy has several indications for use. Primarily, herbal therapy is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'used to treat many common complaints and diseases.' Herbal therapy is commonly used to address a variety of health issues and ailments by utilizing natural remedies derived from plants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because herbal therapy's primary purpose is not to promote specific diets, act as an adjunct to medications, or create specific dietary restrictions, but rather to provide alternative treatment options for various health conditions.
Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the grieving process, it is essential to have a support system in place. Options B, C, and D - a nurse, a social worker, and a family member, respectively, are individuals who can provide comfort, guidance, and practical assistance to someone who is grieving. However, a despondent friend, as stated in the question, is not an ideal choice for support during this period. A despondent friend is someone who is feeling extremely unhappy and discouraged, and may not have the emotional capacity to provide the needed support to a grieving individual. It is important for someone who is grieving to have support from individuals who can offer understanding, empathy, and strength, which a despondent friend may struggle to provide.
Which deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been primarily associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. Its deficiency can lead to neural tube defects, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. Iron deficiency is not directly related to neural tube defects but can cause other complications in pregnancy. Vitamin B12 is important for neurological function but is not the primary cause of neural tube defects. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.
Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Leukopenia does not present immediately after chemotherapy because time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident. Leukopenia is characterized by an abnormally low white blood cell count. The correct answer is D because the white cell count is not immediately affected by chemotherapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to red blood cells (hemoglobin and hematocrit), which are not directly related to the delayed onset of leukopenia.
Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.
A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.
A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.
A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hepatitis A is the correct answer because it is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infectious blood, semen, and other body fluids, not through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact, not via the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis D occurs only in individuals infected with Hepatitis B. Therefore, the correct choice for the type of hepatitis transmitted via the fecal-oral route is Hepatitis A.
In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.
Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.
During a home health visit, a nurse consults with a male patient diagnosed with CAD and COPD who is taking Ventolin, Azmacort, Aspirin, and Theophylline and complains of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to contact the patient's physician immediately. The patient's symptoms of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort could indicate theophylline toxicity, a potentially serious condition. It is crucial to consult the physician promptly to address this issue. Option B, recommending the patient lie on his right side, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and is not a priority. Option C, advising the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day, is inappropriate as the symptoms may indicate an urgent concern. Option D, suggesting holding the drug Azmacort, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and should not be done without consulting the physician first.
When teaching bleeding precautions to a client with leukemia, the PN should include which of the following instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Use a soft toothbrush.' A soft toothbrush is recommended because it is less likely to cause the gums to bleed in clients with leukemia, who are at risk of bleeding due to overcrowding of white cells at the expense of other cell types like platelets. Choice B, 'Use dental floss daily,' is incorrect because dental floss is contraindicated and can make the gums bleed in clients with leukemia. Choice C, 'Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes,' is incorrect because when clotting is impaired, pressure should be held for 5-10 minutes or longer until the bleeding stops. Choice D, 'Use a triple-edged razor,' is incorrect because an electric razor should be used instead of a triple-edged razor to prevent small cuts and bleeding in clients with leukemia.
A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.
A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, "Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?" The nurse should state:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.
A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
A healthcare professional is screening patients for immunizations. Which of the following is not a contraindication for immunization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Illness lasting more than 6 months.' Chronic conditions lasting more than 6 months are not considered a contraindication for immunization. Choice A, 'Seizures,' can be a contraindication in certain situations, especially if linked to a specific vaccine component. Choice B, 'Fever lasting more than 3 days,' can be a temporary precaution but not a general contraindication. Choice C, 'Malignancy within the past 3 months,' is a contraindication due to the compromised immune system in cancer patients.
A high school nurse observes a 14-year-old female rubbing her scalp excessively in the gym. What is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to observe the hairline and scalp for possible signs of lice. The student's behavior of excessively rubbing her scalp raises concerns about a potential infestation, making it necessary to look for signs firsthand. Contacting the parents or the physician should be considered after observing for signs of lice to provide more information and take appropriate action. Requesting a private evaluation from the parents may not be required initially, as lice infestation is a common concern among children and observing for signs is the immediate step to address the situation.
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