Free PN Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep (NCLEX PN). Answer 78 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, an
According to Erikson, which developmental task is a toddler confronting when they develop 'a will of his own' and 'acts as if he can control others'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to Erikson, the correct developmental task for a toddler who has developed 'a will of his own' and 'acts as if he can control others' is Autonomy versus doubt and shame. Toddlers at this stage are asserting their wills and realizing they can control others, which is part of developing autonomy. However, they may also experience doubt and shame if their assertiveness is met with disapproval. Trust versus mistrust is the developmental task of the infant, where the main focus is on developing trust in the caregiver. Initiative versus guilt is the developmental task of the preschool-age child, emphasizing the balance between taking initiative and feeling guilty. Industry versus inferiority is the developmental task of the school-age child, focusing on competence and self-esteem.
A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
By 24 months of age, a child can perform various activities. While the child may be able to put on simple items of clothing, distinguishing front from back might still be a challenge. They may also be able to zip large zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and turn book pages one at a time. However, the fine motor skill required to tie shoes is usually not developed at this age. Full independence in dressing, using the bathroom, and eating typically occurs around 4 to 5 years of age. Therefore, the correct expectation for a 24-month-old child would be aligning two or more blocks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent skills that are usually achieved at a later age.
How often should a 5-year-old child undergo a dental examination?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 5-year-old child, dental examinations should be conducted every 6 months. This frequency allows for early detection of dental issues and promotes good oral health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for a new primary tooth to erupt, having an examination once a year, or every 3 months are not the recommended intervals for dental check-ups in this age group. It is essential to adhere to the standard guideline of every 6 months to ensure regular monitoring and preventive care for the child's dental health.
The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.
A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.
A nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for an older client to help maintain an adequate sleep pattern. Which action should the nurse suggest be included in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To help maintain an adequate sleep pattern in older clients, it is essential to include activities that promote relaxation and a conducive sleep environment. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music can help the client unwind and prepare for sleep. Daytime naps should be discouraged to ensure a better nighttime sleep. Social interaction, especially positive interactions, can be beneficial and should not be discouraged. The use of a nightlight can create a safe and comfortable environment for the client, so it should not be discouraged unless specifically contraindicated.
What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.
When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.
A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.
A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.
Mr. H. is upset about being in the hospital for another day because he states it costs too much. The rights he is likely to demand include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the maintenance of privacy of information, which is not directly related to the issue Mr. H. is facing. The question indicates that Mr. H. is concerned about the cost of staying in the hospital, which pertains more to financial aspects and the right to examine and question the bill. The right to a reasonable response to requests and the right to refuse treatment are also crucial patient rights that Mr. H. may demand in his current situation. Therefore, the correct answer is the right to confidentiality, as it is not specifically relevant to the scenario presented.
Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level.' Quality is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and expectations, as well as conforming to standards. The term 'performing at the minimally acceptable level' implies just meeting the minimum requirements, which falls short of the comprehensive definition of quality in terms of customer satisfaction and excellence. Therefore, this choice is the exception when defining quality. Choices A, C, and D align with the definition of quality as they all involve meeting or surpassing certain criteria for customer satisfaction and product excellence, which are essential components of quality management.
The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
A female client is seen in the clinic for a gynecological examination. The nurse begins collecting subjective data. Which topic does the nurse ask the client about first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should begin by asking the client about her menstrual history as it is usually nonthreatening. This information can provide insights into the client's reproductive health and any irregularities. Menstrual history is a common starting point for gynecological assessments and can help in understanding the client's overall health status. Asking about sexual history may be more sensitive and personal, not always appropriate to start with. Obstetrical history pertains to pregnancies and may not be relevant if the client has not been pregnant. Inquiring about the presence of vaginal drainage is important but is usually addressed after gathering more general information about the client's health.
What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Major competencies for nurses providing end-of-life care involve a combination of skills and qualities. Demonstrating respect and compassion towards the family and the client is essential in end-of-life care. Additionally, applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client is crucial to ensure comprehensive and compassionate care. Option A is the correct choice as it accurately reflects these key competencies. Option B, which focuses on assessing and intervening for total management, is important but does not fully address the holistic approach necessary for end-of-life care. Option C, about setting goals and expectations, is relevant but not as critical as the core competencies mentioned in option A. Option D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.
When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.
The goals of palliative care include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The goals of palliative care include choices A, B, and D. Choice C, 'no interventions are needed because the client is near death,' is not part of palliative care. Palliative care involves giving clients with life-threatening illnesses the best quality of life possible, taking care of the whole person"?body, mind, spirit, heart, and soul, and supporting the needs of the family and client. Interventions are crucial in palliative care to ensure the comfort and well-being of the client until the end of life. Therefore, the correct answer is that no interventions are needed because the client is near death.
When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When removing hard contact lenses, it is crucial to ensure that the lens is correctly positioned on the cornea before removal. Directly grasping the lens can potentially scratch the cornea, so it is essential to gently manipulate the lids to release the lens safely. Gently irrigating the eye is unnecessary and could be harmful, especially without the client's cooperation. Wearing sterile gloves is also unnecessary for this specific procedure. Therefore, the correct approach is to ensure the proper positioning of the lens and then gently manipulate the lids to release it. Options A and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye and wearing sterile gloves are not necessary for contact lens removal. Option B is incorrect as directly grasping the lens can be harmful to the cornea.
Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.
Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.
All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'low incidence of dental problems.' Dental problems are prevalent in families living in poverty due to the lack of preventive care and access to dental services. High infant mortality rate is closely correlated with poverty as it reflects various social determinants of health. Families in poverty may resort to frequent use of Emergency Departments due to limited access to primary care. Consulting with folk healers is also common among families in poverty as they might seek alternative and more accessible healthcare options. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in families experiencing poverty.
How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.
Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Parents should be taught not to cover the cord with a diaper to allow for air exposure and drying, preventing infection. The statement 'I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day' indicates a need for further teaching as current recommendations do not include using alcohol on the cord, which can interfere with natural healing. While it is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries, so the statement 'I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark' is accurate, it is not the best answer for this question. Washing hands before and after caring for the cord is important to prevent the transfer of pathogens, so this statement does not require further teaching.
The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.
When caring for pediatric clients, the nurse should pay special attention to the psychosocial development stages credited to whom?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erik Erikson is credited with the psychosocial development theory and eight stages. The nurse should consider these stages when caring for pediatric clients to evaluate their development. Jean Piaget is known for cognitive development, Sigmund Freud for psychosexual development, and Robert Peck for aging theory. Therefore, the correct answer is Erik Erikson.
The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption, it is crucial for the nurse to provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings. Most women who make this decision have done so with love and pain, and it is essential to allow them to verbalize their emotions, which may include grief, loneliness, and guilt. Referring the woman for grief counseling may be necessary if she lacks a support system or requests help to navigate her grief. Allowing the woman to see her baby is important, and the nurse should respect her wishes regarding visitation as it can aid in the grief process. While the woman does have the right to change her mind about relinquishment until final legal arrangements are made, suggesting this option may inadvertently influence her decision and should be approached cautiously. Therefore, providing emotional support and opportunities for expression are the priority strategies in this situation.
When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.
Which of these is not a symptom of Serotonin Syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Serotonin syndrome, caused by an excess of serotonin, typically presents with symptoms such as altered mental status (confusion), neuromuscular abnormalities (tremors), and autonomic dysfunction (fever). Edema, which refers to swelling caused by fluid retention in the body tissues, is not a common symptom associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is 'edema.' Choice A, 'edema,' is the correct answer as it is not typically seen in serotonin syndrome. Choice B, 'fever,' is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, as it can cause autonomic dysfunction. Choice C, 'confusion,' is a common symptom due to altered mental status in serotonin syndrome. Choice D, 'tremors,' is also a common symptom due to neuromuscular abnormalities in serotonin syndrome.
Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention. Maslow's theory suggests that physiological and safety needs are more basic and may require physical interventions, while social, esteem, and self-actualization needs are more psychosocial. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly suggest that all levels may require only one type of intervention. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately represents the balance of physical and psychosocial interventions in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A 37-year-old female client asks the nurse about contraception options and expresses interest in oral contraception pills. Which of the following statements would indicate that oral contraception is appropriate for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the statement mentioning a history of deep vein thrombosis five years ago. Oral contraceptives are generally not recommended for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis due to the increased risk of blood clots. Choice B, about being diligent in taking thyroid medications, does not directly relate to the safety of using oral contraceptives. Choice D, about a recent breast cancer diagnosis, would contraindicate the use of hormonal contraceptives. Choice A, mentioning a recent return to smoking, raises concerns about using hormonal contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular complications.
The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.
The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
When a 25-year-old client complains of chest congestion and cough after previously presenting with cold symptoms, what data should the nurse collect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this case, the nurse should collect data related to the respiratory system since the client is presenting with symptoms like chest congestion and cough, indicating a respiratory issue. Focusing on the respiratory system will help gather pertinent information to assess the current problem comprehensively. A complete health database involves a detailed health history and full physical examination, which is beyond the immediate scope of the presenting issue. Data related to follow-up care is premature as the primary focus should be on assessing the current respiratory symptoms. Data related to the treatment for the cold is not the priority at this stage, as understanding the underlying respiratory problem is crucial for appropriate intervention.
What is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Altered Family Processes play a significant role in impacting the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly perceptive of their caregivers' responses, and any changes in family dynamics due to the diagnosis can affect the infant's sense of security and trust, influencing their body image and self-perception. Immobility, while a long-term effect of hemophilia, is not an immediate impact on body image. Altered growth and development would not have manifested immediately post-diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, characterized by bleeding into joint spaces, is a hallmark of hemophilia but does not directly influence body image in the immediate aftermath of a new diagnosis.
When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.
A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.
A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
What are the basic reasons American families are having difficulty adequately performing their vital health care function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the 'structure of the health care system and family structure'. Scholars suggest that the reasons families are having difficulty providing health care for their members lie with both the structure of the health care system and the family structure. Major factors explaining differences in utilization patterns of medical services include the lack of healthcare insurance coverage, lack of services for special populations (such as teenage males), perception by families of the health care system and the health care provider, and lack of partnership between health care providers and families in mutually addressing health care issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the fundamental reasons related to the health care system and family structure as discussed in the provided extract.
Which of the following client groups should the nurse recognize as the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Single mothers with two or three children are indeed the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. These families, where the majority of children are under the age of five, make up more than one-third of the homeless population in the United States. While single, adult men have traditionally been the largest group in the homeless population, single mothers with children have been increasing in numbers. Runaway adolescents, although a significant group of homeless children, do not represent the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. Single, adult women are not specified as the fastest-growing segment.
Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.
While assisting with data collection on a client, a nurse hears a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What action should the nurse prioritize based on this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Detection of a bruit over the aorta during abdominal assessment may indicate the presence of an aneurysm. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider to further evaluate the situation. Palpating the area or percussing the abdomen could potentially increase the risk of an aneurysm rupture. While documenting the finding is important, the priority is to ensure timely intervention by involving the healthcare provider.
At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.
A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.
The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus® (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.
The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.
A woman is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. Which action should the nurse take first upon noting the presence of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When late decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor during oxytocin infusion, it indicates decreased oxygenation to the fetus. The immediate action the nurse should take is to stop the oxytocin infusion. This helps reduce uterine activity, increase fetal oxygenation, and prevent further stress on the fetus. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is crucial to address the underlying issue causing the late decelerations. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse, increasing the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important actions but are secondary to stopping the oxytocin infusion in this scenario.
While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
A nurse in the healthcare provider's office is checking the Babinski reflex in a 3-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant's response is normal if which finding is noted?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare, and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.
A preschooler has successfully completed the test item 'counts 5 blocks' on the Denver II test. This pass is evidence of which of the following developmental concepts?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ability of a preschooler to move five blocks to a piece of paper and state there are five blocks on the paper is evidence that the preschooler has the ability of conservation. This concept refers to the fact that the quantity of something doesn't change just because the shape, contour, and so on has changed. Five blocks are still five blocks, whether they are lying beside the paper, stacked on the paper, or moved to the paper. Centration is the ability to concentrate on one feature of a situation while neglecting all other aspects. Causality is based on the sequence of events, one event ordinarily following another. Non-reversibility refers to the inability of preschoolers to reverse their operations. They are only able to think forward, not retrace or reverse their thought processes.
A nurse preparing to assist with data collection of the abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse expects to primarily note tympany when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the client is in a supine position. Dullness is usually heard over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass. Borborygmus, which refers to hyperperistalsis, is typically heard on auscultation, not percussion. Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention, not the typical finding when percussing all four quadrants of the abdomen.
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.
A nurse is preparing to auscultate a client's breath sounds. To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse places the stethoscope over which area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess vesicular breath sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope over the peripheral lung fields. Vesicular breath sounds are heard in these areas where air flows through the smaller bronchioles and alveoli. Bronchovesicular breath sounds, not vesicular, are heard over the major bronchi. Bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds are heard over the trachea and larynx, not vesicular sounds. Breath sounds are not heard over the xiphoid process, making it an incorrect choice.
To improve overall health, the nurse should place the highest priority on assisting a client to make lifestyle changes for which of the following habits?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To improve overall health, the nurse should prioritize assisting the client in making lifestyle changes that have the most significant impact on health. Drinking a six-pack of beer each day can have serious negative effects on health, including liver damage, increased risk of chronic diseases, and addiction. By addressing this habit first, the nurse can make a substantial positive difference in the client's health. Eating an occasional chocolate bar, exercising twice a week, and using relaxation exercises to deal with stress are beneficial habits, but they are not as detrimental to health as excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, they are not the highest priority for immediate lifestyle changes to improve health.
A nurse is determining the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client using Nagele's rule and notes documentation that the date of the client's last menstrual period was August 30, 2013. The nurse determines the estimated date of delivery to be which date?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nagele's rule is a method used to estimate the date of delivery for pregnant clients. The rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then adjusting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2013, brings the date to May 30, 2013; adding 7 days results in June 6, 2013. Finally, after correcting the year, the estimated date of delivery is June 6, 2014. Therefore, the correct answer is June 6, 2014. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the accurate calculation based on Nagele's rule.
A pregnant client asks a nurse about the use of noninvasive acupressure as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea. The nurse provides which instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter.' Acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point can be used as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea during pregnancy. It can be performed with devices that apply pressure alone, which are available over the counter. Acupressure devices that apply electrical impulses over this point require a prescription. It is not safe to try any type of complementary alternative therapy during pregnancy, as some may be harmful to the mother and fetus. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client about the availability of over-the-counter pressure devices for acupressure, which are generally safe to use.
A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.
The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.
A nurse is preparing a female client for a rectal examination. Into which position does the nurse assist the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a rectal examination in a female client, the nurse should assist the client into the left lateral position. This position allows easier access to the rectal area, facilitating the examination. The lithotomy position is used for examining the genitalia and rectum in females, not solely for a rectal examination. The standing position is not appropriate for a rectal examination as it does not provide the necessary access. The supine position would hinder the effectiveness of a rectal examination as it does not optimize access to the rectal area.
When meeting nurses for the first time, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about their previous work experience, and encourages active participation. This behavior is an example of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses through eye contact, smiling, and encouraging participation. This behavior shows a balance between expressing her own opinions and respecting others. Aggressive behavior would involve dominating or embarrassing others, while passive behavior is characterized by being timid or nervous. Passive-aggressive behavior is indirect and manipulative, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A 65-year-old female experiencing postmenopausal bleeding should be encouraged to see a gynecologist. Gynecologists specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive organs, making them the most appropriate physician for this issue. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate various gynecological conditions such as endometrial atrophy, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial cancer, highlighting the importance of consulting a gynecologist for proper diagnosis and management. Radiologists evaluate X-rays, physiatrists manage rehabilitation teams, and oncologists treat clients with cancer. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms point towards a gynecological problem, emphasizing the necessity of seeking care from a gynecologist.
A wrong committed by one person against another (or against the property of another) that might result in a civil trial is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A tort is a civil wrong committed by one person against another person (or against the property of another) that might result in civil trials. Unlike crimes, which are considered wrongs against the public, torts are personal wrongs. Misdemeanors are crimes punishable with fines or imprisonment for less than one year, whereas felonies are serious crimes punishable by imprisonment for more than one year in a State or Federal penitentiary. Therefore, the correct answer is a tort as it aligns with the definition of a civil wrong that leads to potential civil trials, distinguishing it from crimes, misdemeanors, and felonies.
What type of immunity do vaccines provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vaccines provide active immunity by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against specific pathogens. Choice B, passive immunity, is acquired from ready-made antibodies, not through vaccination. Choice C, transplacental immunity, is a form of passive immunity transferred from mother to infant, not acquired through vaccines. Therefore, the correct answer is active immunity.
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.
After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.
How does the family carry out its health care functions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Families play a crucial role in providing preventive health care to their members at home. This includes activities such as promoting healthy lifestyles, ensuring vaccinations, scheduling regular check-ups, and intervening early when health issues arise. Therefore, the correct answer is that the family provides preventive health care to its members at home. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because families are expected to actively engage in preventive health care practices rather than providing very little preventive care, solely paying for health services, or making hospitalization decisions. The focus is on the proactive role of families in maintaining the health of their members.
Regarding maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, a concern is that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care. This is a significant concern as lack of access to prenatal care can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes families as unconcerned, which may not be the case for all families. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no evidence or indication in the prompt to suggest an increase in the shortage of personnel. Choice D is not directly related to the concern mentioned in the prompt, which specifically focuses on the lack of prenatal care.
Health promotion activities are designed to help clients:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Health promotion activities encompass a broad range of interventions aimed at enhancing overall well-being. These activities not only focus on reducing the risk of illness but also on maintaining maximal function and promoting healthy habits related to healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all integral components of health promotion strategies, emphasizing the multidimensional approach required to support clients in achieving optimal health outcomes.
During the health screening of an adolescent, which finding by the nurse requires further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'The client states she is currently taking birth control pills.' This finding requires further teaching because being on birth control pills does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the adolescent should be educated on the importance of using barrier methods (e.g., condoms) for STD prevention. Choices A, C, and D are not concerning. Choice A is a normal developmental milestone in adolescence. Choice C could indicate a positive lifestyle change, and choice D is a common complaint during this stage of development.
The nurse, assisting with data collection of the abdomen, inspects the client's abdomen. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is auscultation. The assessment techniques used for a physical examination are inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These techniques are normally performed in this order. However, in the abdominal examination, auscultation is performed after inspection and before palpation and percussion. This order is specific to the abdomen because palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis, leading to a false interpretation of bowel sounds. Therefore, auscultation is performed before palpation and percussion in abdominal assessments to ensure accurate bowel sound assessment. Percussion and palpation are performed after auscultation in abdominal assessments. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as auscultation is the next assessment technique to perform after inspection in abdominal assessments, followed by palpation and percussion.
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