Free PN Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions (NCLEX PN). Answer 77 nursing exam-style questions wit
A nurse is planning care for a hospitalized toddler. To best maintain the toddler's sense of control and security and ease feelings of helplessness and fear, the nurse should perform which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the nurse to take to help a hospitalized toddler maintain a sense of control and security and ease feelings of helplessness and fear is to keep hospital routines as similar as possible to those at home. By incorporating the toddler's usual rituals and routines from home into nursing care activities, the nurse can reduce the stress of hospitalization. This approach gives the toddler a sense of familiarity, control, and security, which can alleviate feelings of helplessness and fear. Allowing the toddler to play with other children in the nursing unit playroom and selecting toys are beneficial activities, but maintaining hospital routines similar to those at home is the most effective way to support the toddler's emotional well-being during hospitalization.
When assisting with data collection on language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, what characteristic would a nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, a nurse would expect the child's language development to be slower than expected. Various factors, such as physical maturity and reinforcement received, can influence the pace of language development. Children from bilingual families, twins, and non-firstborn children may exhibit slower language development. Therefore, it is common for the language development of a toddler from a bilingual family to be slower than expected. This characteristic does not necessarily imply a need for speech therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in this context, the language development of the child is more likely to be slower than expected rather than more advanced, developing as expected, or requiring speech therapy.
A nurse, assigned to care for a hospitalized child who is 8 years old, assists with planning care, taking into account Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. According to Erikson's theory, which task represents the primary developmental task of this child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the primary task for an 8-year-old child aligns with the stage of industry versus inferiority. This stage focuses on mastering useful skills and tools of the culture, emphasizing competence in various areas. Option A, 'Developing a sense of control over self and body functions,' is more characteristic of the toddler stage, emphasizing autonomy and self-regulation. Option C, 'Gaining independence from parents,' is more relevant to the adolescent stage, where identity development and autonomy become crucial. Option D, 'Developing a sense of trust in the world,' pertains to the infant stage, highlighting the importance of forming secure attachments. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly corresponds to the developmental tasks associated with an 8-year-old child according to Erikson's theory.
What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.
A nurse is conducting a psychosocial assessment of a young adult. Which observations would lead the nurse to determine that the client is demonstrating a sign of emotional health?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the young adult verbalizes satisfaction with friendships. Emotional health in young adults is characterized by various positive signs, including satisfaction with social interactions and friendships. Expressing contentment with friendships indicates a healthy emotional state, fostering positive social connections. On the other hand, sensitivity to criticism, verbalizing unrealistic fears, and expressing disappointment with life are all indicative of emotional distress and potential mental health challenges. These behaviors can hinder social relationships and overall emotional well-being.
Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.
A nurse provides instructions to an older adult about measures to prevent heatstroke. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As an individual ages, the number of sweat glands decreases, resulting in reduced body odor and decreased evaporative heat loss due to less sweating. The need for antiperspirants and deodorants is reduced in older adults. Therefore, the statement 'I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather' indicates a need for further instruction. Older adults should focus on wearing cool, light clothing in warm weather to prevent overheating, wearing a hat with a wide brim when outdoors to protect from the sun's rays, and staying hydrated by drinking extra fluids during the summer. These measures are more effective in preventing heatstroke in older adults compared to using additional antiperspirants and deodorants, which are not necessary.
A nurse observes a nursing assistant communicating with a hearing-impaired client in later adulthood. The nurse should intervene if the nursing assistant performs which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Overarticulates words.' When communicating with a hearing-impaired client who may rely on lip-reading, it is essential to speak clearly at a normal rate and volume. Overarticulating words can distort lip movements, making it harder for the client to understand. Using short sentences helps in conveying information effectively, allowing the client time to process. While facial expressions and gestures provide additional visual cues that aid in communication, overarticulating words can be counterproductive in this scenario. Therefore, the nursing assistant should avoid overarticulating words to ensure clear and concise communication for the client.
A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.
A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.
When should rehabilitation services begin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.
Client self-determination is the primary focus of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Client self-determination is the primary focus of nursing's advocacy for clients. Nurses advocate for their clients' right to autonomy and self-determination, ensuring that the clients' preferences and choices are respected. Confidentiality, on the other hand, involves maintaining the privacy of the client and their information. Health care is a broad term encompassing various aspects of medical services. Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance that provides coverage for professionals in case of negligence or malpractice, not directly related to client self-determination.
A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the healthcare provider expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at increased risk of pneumococcal infections, so the pneumococcal vaccine is recommended as a supplemental vaccine for them. The hepatitis A vaccine is not routinely given to HIV-positive children unless they have other risk factors for hepatitis A. Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, not routinely recommended for a 2-year-old. Typhoid vaccine is typically given to individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in settings with potential exposure to Salmonella typhi, not a routine vaccine for a 2-year-old with HIV.
A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.
During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client's J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client's nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.
The patient is inquiring about the use of a PCA pump for pain management. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional education?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."? This statement indicates a need for additional education as it reflects an unrealistic expectation regarding pain management. It is essential for the patient to understand that while a PCA pump can provide effective pain relief, it may not completely eliminate pain. Option A is correct as it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the importance of reporting pain scores for proper pain management. Option B is correct as it shows the patient's awareness of the maximum dose limits to prevent overdose. Option D is correct as it highlights the patient's understanding of the control they have over their medication administration.
A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.
In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.
What ethical obligations do professional nurses have according to the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'all of the above.' According to the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses, professional nurses have ethical obligations to patients (clients), the nursing profession, and providing high-quality care. These elements are fundamental principles outlined in the code of ethics to guide nurses in their practice. Choice A is correct as nurses prioritize the well-being and care of their patients. Choice B is correct as nurses are expected to uphold the values and integrity of the nursing profession. Choice C is correct as providing high-quality care is a core ethical obligation of nurses. Therefore, all the choices align with the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses.
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.
When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.
When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.
The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.
During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.
The school nurse is conducting health screenings on schoolchildren. During the screening, she identifies a child with the behavioral characteristics of attention deficit disorder. Which of the following behaviors is consistent with this disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'overreaction to stimuli from the surroundings.' Children with attention deficit disorder often exhibit hypersensitivity to stimuli, leading to overreactions. Slow speech development is not a hallmark of attention deficit disorder; it is more associated with other learning disabilities. While children with this disorder may have difficulty focusing, they can usually carry on a conversation. Concrete thinking is not a common characteristic of attention deficit disorder, as individuals with this disorder may struggle with abstract thinking and impulsivity.
Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.
The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
The LPN receives a call from a mother caring for her eight-month-old infant. The mother describes that the child has a low-grade fever and has teeth breaking through the gums. Which of the following measures would be inappropriate to recommend to the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering aspirin would be inappropriate in this situation. Aspirin should not be recommended for children due to the increased risk of Reye's syndrome, a serious condition. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate measures for managing teething discomfort in infants. Allowing the child to chew on a cooled teething ring can help soothe the gums, massaging the child's gums gently can provide relief, and administering acetaminophen is a suitable option for pain relief in infants with teething discomfort. Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infections due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition affecting the brain and liver. Therefore, recommending aspirin to the mother would not be appropriate in this case.
The LPN is preparing a client for discharge, and the discharge medications include phenobarbital. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for reinforced teaching about this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine,"? as phenobarbital should not be taken with alcohol as it is a barbiturate. Alcohol may increase the sedative effect, posing risks to the patient's safety. Choice A, "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens,"? is unrelated to phenobarbital and not a cause for reinforced teaching. Choice B, "It's best to take this medication with food,"? is a general instruction and not specific to phenobarbital. Choice D, "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day,"? is a common recommendation for medication adherence but does not highlight a specific concern related to phenobarbital.
A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?
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Explanation:
Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.
A nurse assisting with data collection of a client gathers both subjective and objective data. Which finding would the nurse document as subjective data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Subjective data are information provided by the client about their symptoms, feelings, or experiences. In this case, the client reporting having a rash is subjective data because it is based on what the client says. Choices A, B, and D involve observations or measurements made by the nurse (anxious appearance, blood pressure, reflexes), which fall under objective data. Objective data are observable and measurable data obtained through physical examination, vital signs assessment, and laboratory tests.
A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures of the legs. How should the nurse proceed with data collection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures, the nurse should prioritize obtaining health history information while performing the examination and initiating emergency measures. This approach allows the nurse to gather essential information without delaying immediate interventions. Option A is incorrect because collecting health history information before addressing the immediate need for treatment may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Option C is incorrect as it includes non-urgent aspects of data collection that are not a priority in this critical situation. Option D is incorrect because delaying health history questions until after treating the fractures may result in missing crucial information essential for the client's immediate care.
A nurse assisting with data collection uses the back of the hand to feel the client's skin on both arms and notes that the skin is warm. The nurse makes which determination?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess skin temperature, the nurse would first note the temperature of their own hands. Then, using the backs of the hands to palpate the client's skin bilaterally, warmth suggests normal circulatory status if the skin is warm and the temperature is equal bilaterally. The hands and feet may feel slightly cooler in a cool environment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect responses. A warm skin temperature does not indicate a fever, the need for additional fluids, or the need to have the blanket removed.
A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.
A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.
A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.
A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.
When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.
A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.
A nurse is preparing to listen to the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve in an adult client. The nurse should place the stethoscope on which part of the client's chest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct placement for auscultating the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve is the fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line. Placing the stethoscope in the second left interspace would be to listen to the pulmonic valve, the second right interspace is for the aortic valve, and the left lower sternal border is for the tricuspid valve.
A nurse is preparing to measure a client's calf circumference. The nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To measure a client's calf circumference accurately, a nurse should place a non-stretchable tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg. It is crucial to ensure that the tape measure is positioned at the same number of centimeters down from a specific landmark, such as the patella, on both legs for consistency. Placing the tape measure 2 inches above the knee (Option B), 2 inches above the ankle (Option C), or 2 inches below the patella (Option D) would not provide an accurate measurement of the calf circumference. Therefore, these options are incorrect choices.
All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.
Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while lightly palpating a client's right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated with which anatomic structure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the Appendix. Tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is a classic sign of appendicitis, which is inflammation of the appendix. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant. The other choices are incorrect. The spleen is located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity under the diaphragm. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. The liver fills most of the right upper quadrant and extends to the left midclavicular line.
The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.
A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the laboring client in the left lateral position is beneficial because it promotes blood flow to the placenta. Late decelerations indicate potential issues with fetal oxygenation, and changing the position to left lateral can help improve placental perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithotomy, semi-Fowler's, and right lateral positions do not specifically address the need for improved blood flow to the placenta in cases of late decelerations.
A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.
After breast reconstruction secondary to breast cancer, the nurse should recognize which of the following expected client outcomes as evidence of a favorable response to nursing interventions related to disturbed body image?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'restored body integrity.' This outcome is crucial in addressing disturbed body image following breast reconstruction. Restored body integrity reflects a positive perception of one's body after surgery, contributing to improved body image. Choices A, 'maintaining adequate tissue perfusion,' are more related to physiological outcomes and are not directly linked to body image concerns. Choice B, 'demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears,' is associated with anxiety management, not body image. Choice D, 'remaining free of infection,' pertains to preventing infections and does not directly address body image concerns.
Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.
A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.
When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.
A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).
The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.
Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn infant, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn infant, the nurse must obtain parental consent. Hepatitis B vaccine is typically given at birth, 1 month, and 6 months of age. Checking the infant for jaundice, checking the temperature, and requesting a hepatitis blood screen are unnecessary in this context. Parental consent is crucial for any medical intervention involving minors.
A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.
Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.
A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.
An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs' test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs' test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.
The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female client's home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter. Rugs and clutter are common causes of falls in the home, especially for the elderly or those with gait issues. Removing them can significantly reduce the risk of falls. While having a raised toilet seat and grab bars in the bathroom is important for safety, it is not the priority in this scenario. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless specifically advised by the physician, as maintaining mobility is essential for recovery. Lastly, the client should avoid wearing robes and socks while walking in the house to prevent tripping, slipping, or falling on slippery floors.
Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse's plan be altered or modified during the shift?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'when needs change.' It is crucial for the nurse to remain adaptable and adjust the plan promptly when the patient's needs or condition change. Choice A, 'halfway through the shift,' may not align with the timing of when needs actually change, making it less optimal for plan modifications. Choice B, 'at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off,' is too late to address evolving needs effectively. Choice D, 'after the top-priority tasks have been completed,' limits the nurse's ability to respond promptly to changing priorities, as needs may shift before all top-priority tasks are finished.
When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).
A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.
The teaching plan for gay or lesbian parents who want to disclose their homosexuality to their children should include all of the following instructions except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to explain how your relationship with the child changes because of the discussion. Children of gay and lesbian parents should be reassured that their relationship with their parent will not change due to the disclosure. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of the disclosure process. It is crucial to disclose the information before the child knows or suspects, be comfortable with your sexual preference first, and have the discussion in a quiet place to ensure a safe and open environment for communication. Explaining how the relationship with the child changes might create unnecessary anxiety or confusion. Children may have different reactions based on their age, understanding, and environment. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a sense of stability and security in the parent-child relationship while addressing any questions or concerns that may arise.
When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment, what aspect should be the focus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client, the primary focus should be on identifying risk factors that could predispose the client to illness or injury. Risk factors are crucial in determining an individual's overall health status and potential health outcomes. While agility, speed, and body composition are important components of physical fitness assessments, they are not the primary focus when assessing health-related physical fitness from a holistic perspective. Therefore, the correct choice is 'risk factors.'
When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, which safety measure should be implemented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure is to move the wheelchair close to the client's bed and have the client stand and pivot on their unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls or injuries. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests walking the client, which may not be safe or feasible. Choice C is incorrect because pivoting on the affected extremity can increase the risk of injury. Choice D is incorrect as it does not consider the client's limitations and safety needs, as it involves pushing their body which may not be possible with hemiparesis.
What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.
The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.
An appraisal of self-care practices involves an assessment of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An appraisal of self-care practices focuses on assessing caregiving needs and the potential for strain. This involves evaluating the support system in place for individuals requiring care, the level of strain experienced by caregivers, and the overall impact of caregiving responsibilities on both the caregiver and the care recipient. The other options presented do not directly relate to the assessment of self-care practices. Diagnostic tests, home treatment practices, and the family's capability to obtain health insurance are important aspects of healthcare but do not specifically pertain to the evaluation of self-care practices.
Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Altered Family Processes is a significant factor that can impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly sensitive to the reactions of their caregivers, and a new diagnosis like Hemophilia can introduce stress and uncertainties into the family dynamics. This can affect the infant's sense of security, trust development, and how they perceive themselves. Immobility, while a potential long-term effect of Hemophilia, is not the immediate impact on body image for a newly diagnosed infant. Altered growth and development would take time to manifest and would not be an immediate concern after a recent diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, although a characteristic symptom of Hemophilia, is a physical manifestation rather than a direct influence on body image perception in a newly diagnosed infant.
Diagnostic genetic counseling, for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, allows clients to make all of the following choices except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diagnostic genetic counseling provides clients with important information to make informed decisions regarding their pregnancy. Clients can choose to terminate the pregnancy, prepare for the birth of a child with special needs, and access support services before the birth based on the genetic testing results. However, completing the grieving process before the birth is not a typical choice during genetic counseling. The grieving process, if needed, may extend beyond the prenatal period, especially if the findings are concerning or indicate potential issues. Therefore, completing the grieving process before the birth is the exception among the provided options.
While assessing a client's skin, the nurse notes the presence of several large red-blue and purple areas on the client's body that do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary bleeding into the tissues, commonly known as a bruise. The color of such an area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is characterized by scaly erythematous patches with silvery scales on top, usually found on specific areas like the scalp, elbows, knees, low back, and anogenital area. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema, indicating a central problem like congestive heart failure or kidney failure. Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots resulting from tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and subdermal areas. Therefore, in this case, the correct term to document the described finding is Ecchymosis.
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