Nursing Elites

1. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

2. When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessments into their health assessments. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient?

• A. "Are you of the Christian faith?"?
• B. "Do you want to see a medicine man?"?
• C. "How often do you seek help from medical providers?"?
• D. "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to assess the cultural beliefs and practices of the patient and should ask questions in a way that communicates acceptance of their beliefs and allows for open communication. Therefore, the most appropriate question to initiate an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient is "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"? This question shows respect for the patient's beliefs and encourages them to share relevant information. Asking if they are of the Christian faith does not promote open communication and may not reflect the patient's actual beliefs. While some American Indians may seek assistance from a medicine man or shaman, it is not appropriate to make assumptions without direct input from the patient. Asking how often they seek help from medical providers is not directly related to understanding their cultural beliefs and may not provide relevant insights for culturally competent care.

3. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

4. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

5. The client often sighs and says in a monotone voice, 'I'm never going to get over this.' When encouraged to participate in care, the client says, 'I don't have the energy.' These cues are suggestive of which nursing diagnoses? Select all that apply.

• A. Hopelessness
• B. Power
• C. Interrupted sleep pattern
• D. Disturbed self-esteem

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nursing diagnosis involves clinical judgment about a response to a health problem. In this scenario, the client's expressions of feeling overwhelmed and lacking energy indicate feelings of hopelessness and powerlessness. While fatigue is mentioned, there is no direct evidence to support an interrupted sleep pattern, making option C incorrect. Similarly, disturbed self-esteem and self-care deficit are not evident from the given cues, making options D and E incorrect.

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