Nursing Elites

1. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

2. Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?

• A. Client's face is pale
• B. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable
• C. Nursing assistant reports client refused lunch
• D. Client feels nauseated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Client feels nauseated.' Subjective data refers to the client's sensations, feelings, and perception of their health status. It can only be reported by the client as it is based on their personal experiences. The feeling of nausea is a subjective symptom that the client experiences and can provide insight into their health condition. Choices A and B represent objective data, as they describe observable or measurable findings that can be detected by the nurse. Choice C involves information reported by someone other than the client, making it indirect and not purely subjective.

3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

4. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

5. While measuring a patient's blood pressure, which factor influences a patient's blood pressure?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Pulse pressure
• C. Vascular output
• D. Peripheral vascular resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When measuring a patient's blood pressure, it is important to consider various factors that influence blood pressure. Peripheral vascular resistance plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The level of blood pressure is affected by factors such as cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance, volume of circulating blood, viscosity, and elasticity of the vessel walls. Pulse rate (Choice A) refers to the number of heartbeats per minute and is not a primary factor influencing blood pressure. Pulse pressure (Choice B) is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and does not directly impact blood pressure regulation. Vascular output (Choice C) is not a recognized term in blood pressure regulation and is not a primary factor affecting blood pressure.

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