who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decis
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NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

2. As a charge nurse, what is your primary responsibility for a 50-year-old blind and deaf patient admitted to your floor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. Ensuring patient safety is crucial to prevent medical errors and adverse outcomes. By creating a safe environment, the nurse can protect the patient from harm and promote well-being. Option A is incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring patient safety rather than highlighting deficits. Option B is not the primary responsibility in this scenario, as the immediate concern is the patient's safety. Option C is irrelevant and does not address the patient's primary needs, which are safety and security.

3. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

4. When providing culturally competent care, nurses must incorporate cultural assessments into their health assessments. Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to assess the cultural beliefs and practices of the patient and should ask questions in a way that communicates acceptance of their beliefs and allows for open communication. Therefore, the most appropriate question to initiate an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient is "What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you?"? This question shows respect for the patient's beliefs and encourages them to share relevant information. Asking if they are of the Christian faith does not promote open communication and may not reflect the patient's actual beliefs. While some American Indians may seek assistance from a medicine man or shaman, it is not appropriate to make assumptions without direct input from the patient. Asking how often they seek help from medical providers is not directly related to understanding their cultural beliefs and may not provide relevant insights for culturally competent care.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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