Nursing Elites

1. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

2. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

3. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to auscultate the abdomen. How should they proceed?

• A. Warm the endpiece of the stethoscope by rubbing it between their hands.
• B. Ensure the patient is adequately covered and comfortable during the examination.
• C. Ensure that the diaphragm side of the stethoscope is in use.
• D. Check the room temperature and offer blankets to the patient if needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to auscultate the abdomen, it is important to ensure the patient's comfort. The room should be warm to prevent shivering, which can interfere with sound clarity. Offering blankets to the patient if they feel cold helps maintain their comfort during the examination. The endpiece of the stethoscope should be warmed by rubbing it between the examiner's hands, not by placing it in warm water. It is important to use the diaphragm, not the bell, of the stethoscope to auscultate for bowel sounds. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, as it addresses the patient's comfort and the room temperature, which are essential for a successful abdominal auscultation.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
• B. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C)
• C. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain
• D. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after a subclavian catheter insertion should be assessed first. Tracheal deviation can indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. While the other patients also need assessment, the potential for tension pneumothorax in the patient with tracheal deviation necessitates urgent attention to prevent complications.

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