NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
- A. Anger
- B. Apathy
- C. Anxiety
- D. Agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indifférence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
2. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas.
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts.
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective.
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that 10-year-olds are able to think logically in organizing facts. At this age, children are in the concrete operational stage according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. In this stage, they can understand and organize information logically and can manipulate objects mentally. Choice A is incorrect because simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to egocentrism, which is more typical of the preoperational stage. Choice D is incorrect as basing conclusions on previous experiences is a broader concept that applies across different ages and stages of development, rather than being specific to 10-year-olds in the concrete operational stage.
3. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
- A. Fixed delusion
- B. Magical thinking
- C. Pathological regression
- D. Command hallucination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
4. A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?
- A. 'Joining a support group of people who are coping with this situation may be helpful.'
- B. 'You may be able to decrease your feelings of guilt by seeking counseling.'
- C. 'It would be helpful if you became involved in volunteer work at this time.'
- D. 'I recognize it's hard to deal with, but try to remember that this, too, shall pass.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Joining a support group of individuals facing similar circumstances can provide valuable support and the opportunity to share experiences, making it the most appropriate response. The response suggesting counseling to decrease feelings of guilt is premature because the partner did not directly express guilt and it may not be the most immediate need. Suggesting involvement in volunteer work at this time fails to address the partner's current emotional distress and may come across as dismissive. Offering false reassurance by stating 'this, too, shall pass' does not validate the partner's feelings and minimizes the seriousness of their concerns.
5. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?
- A. EEG
- B. EKG
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.
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