NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A client had a first-trimester abortion and has been unable to function for 3 months. Which type of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Complex bereavement
- B. Anticipatory
- C. Disenfranchised
- D. Complicated
Correct answer: Disenfranchised
Rationale: The client is experiencing disenfranchised grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief over a loss that is not socially recognized or acknowledged. In this case, grief after an abortion falls into this category. It can lead to prolonged emotional distress as the loss may not be openly acknowledged or supported by others. Complex bereavement is characterized by dysfunctional grieving that extends beyond 12 months. Anticipatory grief occurs when the loss is expected or predictable, allowing individuals to start the grieving process before the actual loss. Complicated grief is marked by an inability to progress through the grief stages, leading to intense feelings of depression, anger, and emptiness, often coupled with a preoccupation with the deceased.
2. A man is receiving heparin subcutaneously. The patient has dementia and lives at home with a part-time caretaker. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of heparin?
- A. Back Pain
- B. Fever and Chills
- C. Risk for Bleeding
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: Risk for Bleeding
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Bleeding.' A patient with dementia may have impaired judgment and may be prone to falls or injuries, increasing the risk of bleeding while on heparin therapy. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial in this situation. Choice A, 'Back Pain,' is not a common side effect of heparin. Choice B, 'Fever and Chills,' is not a typical side effect of heparin but may indicate other underlying conditions. Choice D, 'Dizziness,' is not a common side effect of heparin and is not the primary concern in this scenario.
3. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
- B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
- C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
- D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''
Correct answer: ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.
4. When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Vomiting large amounts of bile
Correct answer: Projectile vomiting
Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.
5. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
- A. Infants: High bilirubin
- B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
- C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
- D. The Elderly: Malaria
Correct answer: Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
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