NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. What feeling is likely to result from withdrawn behavior?
- A. Anger
- B. Paranoia
- C. Loneliness
- D. Boredom
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Withdrawn behavior involves avoiding social interactions and isolating oneself. This isolation can lead to feelings of loneliness as the individual lacks connection and companionship. While anger or paranoia may contribute to withdrawal, loneliness is a common emotional consequence of prolonged social isolation. Boredom may also arise from withdrawal if meaningful activities and social engagements are reduced.
2. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Encourage the use of diagnostic procedures.
- B. Coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies.
- C. Ask the patient to discontinue the cultural treatments during hospitalization.
- D. Teach the patient that folk remedies will interfere with orders by the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.
3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
4. The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence and denies any family history of epilepsy. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.
- B. The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.
- C. Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.
- D. Long-term treatment will prevent future seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.' There are various potential causes for a childhood seizure, such as fever, central nervous system conditions, trauma, metabolic alterations, and idiopathic reasons. It's essential not to jump to conclusions about epilepsy based on one seizure. Options A, C, and D provide premature or inaccurate information. Option A may give false reassurance without proper evaluation, option C assumes one seizure guarantees no recurrence, and option D oversimplifies treatment outcomes.
5. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
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