Nursing Elites

1. Which factor is most critical for a single mother of 2 children who recently lost her job and does not know what to do?

• A. Developmental history of children
• B. Available situational supports
• C. Underlying unconscious conflict
• D. Willingness to restructure lifestyle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a crisis intervention, the priority is to identify available situational supports, such as family, friends, community resources, and social services, that can help the single mother and her children during this difficult time. Understanding the developmental history of the children may be important to assess their needs, but it is not the most critical factor in this immediate crisis. Exploring underlying unconscious conflicts is more suited for long-term therapy rather than crisis intervention. While the willingness to restructure lifestyle may eventually be necessary, the immediate focus should be on finding support systems to address the current crisis.

2. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

3. Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?

• A. Asks for the tests to be explained again
• B. Checks the appointment card multiple times
• C. Arrives early and waits quietly to be called for the tests
• D. Paces back and forth in the hallway on the morning of the tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.

4. Which of the following is a symptom associated with sensory overload?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Emotional lability
• D. Depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Disorientation is a common symptom associated with sensory overload. When an individual experiences sensory overload, their brain may become overwhelmed with excessive information, leading to disorientation. This can manifest as an inability to concentrate, racing thoughts, and restless behavior. Sensory overload occurs when a person is unable to either control the amount of environmental stimuli they are exposed to or process the stimuli effectively. Drowsiness, emotional lability, and depression are not typical symptoms of sensory overload. Drowsiness may indicate fatigue or boredom, emotional lability refers to rapid and exaggerated changes in mood, and depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness.

5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

Similar Questions