the nurse would use bimanual palpation technique in which situation the nurse would use bimanual palpation technique in which situation
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1. In which situation would the nurse use bimanual palpation technique?

Correct answer: B: Palpating the kidneys and uterus

Rationale: Bimanual palpation involves using both hands to envelop or capture specific body parts or organs like the kidneys, uterus, or adnexa. This technique is particularly useful for assessing the size, shape, consistency, and mobility of deep organs like the kidneys and uterus. Palpating the thorax of an infant (Choice A) is usually done with a different technique like gentle, single-handed palpation. Assessing pulsations and vibrations (Choice C) and assessing tenderness and pain (Choice D) typically do not require the use of bimanual palpation, making Choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D: 45-64 years

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

3. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?

Correct answer: Kussmaul respirations

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: Meperidine

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to:

Correct answer: Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes

Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.

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