Nursing Elites

1. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

2. A client has fallen asleep in his bed in the hospital. His heart rate is 65 bpm, his muscles are relaxed, and he is difficult to arouse. Which stage of the sleep cycle is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in this scenario is experiencing stage 3 of the sleep cycle. In stage 3, the individual has moved into deeper stages of sleep, making it difficult to arouse. Characteristics of stage 3 include relaxed muscles, a decrease in vital signs, and being very still. Stage 3 is a phase of non-REM sleep where the client progresses towards REM sleep and vivid dreams. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stage 1 is characterized by light sleep, stage 2 is a slightly deeper sleep with sleep spindles and K-complexes, and stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep with the slowest brain waves.

3. A client is taking a walk down the hallway when she suddenly realizes that she needs to use the restroom. Although she tries to make it to the bathroom on time, she is incontinent of urine before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence does this situation represent?

• A. Relex incontinence
• B. Urge incontinence
• C. Total incontinence
• D. Functional incontinence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Functional incontinence occurs when a client develops an urge to void but may not be able to reach the toilet in time. In this scenario, the client had the urge to use the restroom but was unable to make it in time, leading to incontinence. Functional incontinence may be related to conditions that cause the client to forget bladder sensation until the last minute, such as cognitive changes, or the client may have mobility problems that prevent her from reaching the bathroom in time. Choice A, Reflex incontinence, is incorrect as reflex incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle. Choice B, Urge incontinence, is not the correct answer as urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Choice C, Total incontinence, is also incorrect as it refers to the continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, not specifically related to the inability to reach the toilet in time.

4. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?

• A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
• B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
• C. the patient's physical status and condition
• D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.

5. When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?

• A. A 5-point restraint in the back seat, facing backward
• B. A booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
• C. A lap belt in the back seat
• D. A lap and shoulder belt in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.

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