NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The nurse is reviewing the record of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should expect to note which finding documented in the child's record?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypotension
- D. Grossly bloody urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, a key finding documented in the child's record is weight gain due to massive edema. While urine may appear dark, foamy, and frothy, grossly bloody urine is not expected as only microscopic hematuria is present. Additionally, urine output is decreased, and hypertension is likely to be present. Therefore, the correct answer is weight gain as it aligns with the characteristic presentation of nephrotic syndrome.
2. A newborn has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In discussing the condition and treatment with the family, the nurse should emphasize:
- A. They can expect the child will be mentally retarded.
- B. Administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems.
- C. This rare problem is always hereditary.
- D. Physical growth/development will be delayed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems. In newborns diagnosed with hypothyroidism, early identification and continuous treatment with hormone replacement can correct this condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect as it uses outdated and inappropriate language (mentally retarded) and does not reflect modern understanding of conditions. Choice C is incorrect because while some cases of hypothyroidism can be hereditary, it is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect as physical growth and development can be affected by hypothyroidism, but the critical emphasis should be on the importance of administering thyroid hormone to prevent complications and support normal growth and development.
3. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?
- A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
- B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
- C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
- D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
- A. Narrowed QRS complex
- B. Shortened "PR"? interval
- C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
- D. Prominent "U"? waves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.
5. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
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