NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
- B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
- C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
- D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
2. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
- B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
- C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
- D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.
3. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
- A. Bowel perforation
- B. Viral gastroenteritis
- C. Colon cancer
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.
4. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
5. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
- B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
- C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
- D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.' An increased respiratory rate is a crucial sign of respiratory distress in patients with COPD, necessitating immediate interventions like oxygen therapy or medications. The other options are common chronic changes seen in COPD patients. Option B, the 'Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1,' is related to the barrel chest commonly seen in COPD due to hyperinflation. Option C, 'Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally,' is expected in COPD due to air trapping. Option D, 'Hyperresonance to percussion is present,' is typical in COPD patients with increased lung volume and air trapping.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access