NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. The nurse is examining a 2-year-old child and asks, "May I listen to your heart now?"? Which critique of the nurse's technique is most accurate?
- A. Asking questions may enhance the child's autonomy.
- B. Asking the child for permission helps develop a sense of trust.
- C. This question is an inappropriate statement because children at this age like to have choices.
- D. Children at this age like to say, "No."? The examiner should not offer a choice when no choice is available.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children at the age of 2 often like to assert their independence by saying "No."? In situations where there is actually no choice available, offering a false choice can lead to a lack of trust. It is important not to offer a choice when there isn't one, as doing so may undermine trust. While asking for permission can enhance autonomy and trust, offering a limited option like, "Shall I listen to your heart next or your tummy?"? may be a better approach. Therefore, the correct critique of the nurse's technique in this scenario is that children at this age tend to say "No,"? so the examiner should avoid offering a choice when there isn't a real alternative.
2. In the Gram Stain procedure, which component acts as the mordant?
- A. Crystal violet
- B. Methyl alcohol
- C. Iodine
- D. Safranin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Gram Stain procedure, the mordant is Gram's Iodine. The purpose of the mordant is to form a complex with the crystal violet, enhancing its ability to bind to the cell wall. Crystal violet is actually the primary stain used in the Gram Stain procedure to initially color all cells. Methyl alcohol is the decolorizer that removes the crystal violet from certain cell types. Safranin is the counterstain used to stain those cells that did not retain the crystal violet stain after the decolorization step.
3. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?
- A. The client's IV is infiltrated
- B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
- C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
- D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.
4. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: At the age of 10, children are in the concrete operations stage according to Piaget. They are capable of mature thought when allowed to manipulate and organize objects. This means they can think logically, organize facts, and understand cause-and-effect relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While simple associations of ideas may occur, the key cognitive ability at this stage is the capacity for logical thought and organization of information. Interpretation of events from their own perspective is more characteristic of younger children, and conclusions based on previous experiences are more aligned with older children or adults.
5. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?
- A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
- B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
- C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
- D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access