Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Marfan syndrome
• C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
• D. Achondroplastic dwarfism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

2. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

• A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
• B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
• C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
• D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.

3. Which of the following is an example of client handling equipment?

• A. Wheelchair
• B. Height-adjustable bed
• C. Shower chair
• D. Call light

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client handling equipment is designed to reduce stress and workload on healthcare professionals who assist, turn, or lift clients, aiming to decrease the risk of injuries from improper lifting techniques. A height-adjustable bed is a prime example of client handling equipment as it allows healthcare providers to raise the client to a suitable working height, facilitating care provision. Choices A, C, and D are not examples of client handling equipment. While a wheelchair, shower chair, and call light are essential in client care settings, they are not intended to aid in handling and lifting clients.

4. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

5. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

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