Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Marfan syndrome
• C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
• D. Achondroplastic dwarfism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

2. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?

• A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
• B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
• C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
• D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.

3. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

• A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer.
• B. Have another MA perform a repeat dipstick test.
• C. Run a Clinitest.
• D. Run an Acetest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

4. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

• A. The client's IV is infiltrated
• B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
• C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
• D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

5. Which body plane divides the body into right and left sides?

• A. Frontal Plane
• B. Medial Plane
• C. Median Plane
• D. Transverse Plane

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the Median Plane, also known as the sagittal plane. It divides the body into right and left sides. The Frontal Plane, or coronal plane, divides the body into front and back sections. The Transverse Plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically divide the body into right and left sides.

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