Nursing Elites

1. Patients who cannot move in their bed on their own should be turned at least ________________.

• A. once a day
• B. twice a day
• C. every 2 hours
• D. every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who are unable to move in bed are at high risk of developing pressure ulcers and skin breakdown due to prolonged pressure on specific body areas. Turning these patients at least every 2 hours is crucial to relieve pressure, improve circulation, and prevent skin damage. More frequent turning may be necessary for patients with specific needs, such as those who are incontinent of urine and require additional care. Turning patients less frequently, such as once a day, twice a day, or every 4 hours, increases the risk of developing pressure ulcers and other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is to turn patients who cannot move in their bed on their own every 2 hours.

2. During auscultation of a patient's heart sounds, the nurse hears an unfamiliar sound. Which action would the nurse take?

• A. Ask the patient how he or she is feeling.
• B. Document the findings in the patient's record.
• C. Wait 10 minutes and auscultate the sound again.
• D. Ask another nurse to double-check the finding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When encountering an unfamiliar sound during auscultation, it is crucial for the nurse to seek confirmation from another healthcare professional. Asking the patient about their feelings may not provide insight into the unfamiliar sound. Simply documenting the findings without verification may lead to errors in interpretation. Waiting and auscultating again after 10 minutes might delay necessary intervention. Consulting another nurse for a second opinion ensures accurate identification of the unfamiliar sound and appropriate follow-up actions.

3. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

4. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST?

• A. Tell the patient, 'Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths.'
• B. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate
• C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute.
• D. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate method to assess a patient's respiration rate is to count the breaths simultaneously while counting the pulse rate. This approach ensures that the patient is unaware of the specific focus on their breathing, preventing any conscious alteration in breathing patterns. Choice A is incorrect because informing the patient may lead to altered breathing as the patient may consciously change their breathing pattern. Choice C involves counting the pulse rate first, which is not necessary for assessing respiration rate. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary steps such as taking the patient's temperature before counting respiration rate, which adds no value to accurately assessing the respiration rate.

5. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
• B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
• C. The client has a seizure
• D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

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