jerry is a 55 year old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries his friend reported that he had been using
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

2. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement about aliens coming to get them could indicate confusion, which raises concerns about their neurologic status. Since informed consent for surgery requires the client to be mentally competent, the nurse should assess the client's neurologic status to ensure they understand and can legally provide consent. Option A of making the client comfortable and letting them sleep does not address the potential neurologic issue. If the nurse finds the client to be confused, it is essential to inform the surgeon and seek permission from the next of kin if necessary. Therefore, assessing the client's neurologic status is the priority to ensure the client's ability to consent to the surgery.

3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

4. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

5. A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.

Similar Questions

A client decides to have hospice care rather than undergo an extensive surgical procedure. Which ethical principle does the client's behavior illustrate?
An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
Which action often triggers an episode of violence or aggression in a patient with a psychiatric diagnosis involving violent behavior?
Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

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