NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
- B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
- C. See the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.
2. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign a staff member to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.
3. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
- A. The client is pregnant
- B. The client has hypertension
- C. The client is in renal failure
- D. The client has pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
4. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?
- A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
- B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
- C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
- D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.
5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
- B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
- C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
- D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
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