NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
- B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
- C. See the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.
2. The charge nurse is notified that the unit will be receiving an admission of a client from another bed in the hospital in order to make room for others being admitted through the emergency room. The unit is the Women's Health Center of the hospital. Which of the following patients would be most appropriate to be transferred to this unit?
- A. A 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection
- B. A 40-year-old man who underwent a hernia repair
- C. A 31-year-old woman with septicemia and who is on a ventilator
- D. A 91-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease recovering from a fall
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When deciding on transferring patients between units in a hospital, it is essential to consider the appropriateness of the patient for the receiving unit. The Women's Health Center typically caters to female patients with gynecological or obstetric conditions that do not require intensive monitoring or specialized care. In this scenario, the most suitable patient for transfer to the Women's Health Center would be the 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection, as her condition aligns more closely with the services provided in that unit. The other options, including a male patient, a critically ill patient on a ventilator, and an elderly patient with Alzheimer's disease, would not be appropriate for transfer to a Women's Health Center due to the specialized care they require, which may not align with the unit's focus and staffing capabilities.
3. The client has a long leg cast. During discharge teaching about appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend:
- A. Isometric
- B. Range of motion
- C. Aerobic
- D. Isotonic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recommend isometric exercises for the muscles of the casted extremity. Isometric exercises involve contracting and relaxing muscles without moving the affected part. This type of exercise helps maintain muscle strength without moving the joint, which is important for clients with immobilized extremities. Range of motion exercises involve moving the joint through its full range of motion, which may not be suitable for a client with a long leg cast. Aerobic exercises focus on increasing cardiovascular endurance and may not be appropriate for a client with a casted extremity. Isotonic exercises involve muscle contractions with movement, which may not be safe for the affected extremity in a cast.
4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.
- A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
- B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
- C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
- D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.
5. Asepsis is defined as ________________.
- A. the absence of all microorganisms
- B. the absence of disease-causing germs
- C. a urinary infection
- D. a pathogenic infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asepsis is defined as the absence of disease-causing germs. It is surgical asepsis that is defined as the absence of all microorganisms, including spores. A pathogenic infection is an invasion of the body by a pathogen, or disease-causing germ, and a urinary infection is only one type of infection.
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