Nursing Elites

1. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer both drugs.
• B. Administer the spironolactone.
• C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
• D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

2. A client who has undergone radiation therapy presents with itching, redness, burning pain, and skin sloughing on the chest and abdomen. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Apply ointment to the skin to avoid moisture
• B. Wash the area gently with water and pat dry
• C. Use a mild antiseptic soap to wash the area and pat dry
• D. Apply talcum powder to keep the skin dry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client experiencing skin symptoms like redness, itching, burning pain, and sloughing after radiation therapy, it is crucial to maintain proper skin care. Applying ointments, lotions, or powders can worsen the condition by trapping moisture and leading to further skin irritation. The most appropriate intervention is to wash the affected area gently with water to cleanse it without further irritating the skin. Using mild antiseptic soap or talcum powder can also be harsh on the compromised skin. Patting the skin dry helps prevent friction and trauma to the affected area, promoting healing and comfort.

3. When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of

• A. diabetes mellitus.
• B. high-protein diet.
• C. cigarette smoking.
• D. alcohol consumption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

5. A child has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?

• A. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
• B. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
• D. Physical activity should be minimized.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs are important as a first-line treatment and typically require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Choice A is incorrect as early treatment can improve outcomes and prevent joint deformities. Choice B is incorrect as juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not necessarily progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity should be encouraged in children with arthritis to maintain joint mobility and overall health.

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