Nursing Elites

1. What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?

• A. Colposcopy
• B. Sigmoidoscopy
• C. Upper GI
• D. Cardiac catheterization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.

2. While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?

• A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
• B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
• C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
• D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.

3. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

4. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

5. A healthcare provider attempts to plug in a sequential compression device when they notice a tingling sensation in their hands while touching the cord. What is the next action of the healthcare provider?

• A. Attempt to plug the device into a different outlet
• B. Inspect the cord for damage; if none is present, continue to use the device
• C. Discontinue the device and send it to the maintenance department for inspection
• D. Notify the supervisor that the unit is at risk of an electrical fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Feeling a tingling sensation when touching an electrical cord is a warning sign that the device may be malfunctioning. This sensation indicates a potential electrical current leak, which could pose a risk of harm. The correct action is to immediately discontinue the use of the device and send it to the maintenance department for inspection. Continuing to use the device without addressing the issue could lead to electric shock or fire hazards. Trying to plug the device into a different outlet does not address the underlying problem of potential device malfunction. Notifying the supervisor about the risk of an electrical fire is important, but the immediate action should be to stop using the device and have it inspected by maintenance professionals. Therefore, the best course of action is to discontinue the device and ensure it is checked thoroughly before further use.

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