Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a patient suspected to have Hepatitis, a nurse notes the patient's eyes are yellow-tinged. Which of the following diagnostic results would further assist in confirming this diagnosis?

• A. Decreased serum Bilirubin
• B. Elevated serum ALT levels
• C. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs
• D. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevated serum ALT levels would further confirm the diagnosis of Hepatitis. ALT is a liver enzyme, and hepatitis is a liver disease. Elevated liver enzymes, such as ALT, often indicate liver damage. Choice A, 'Decreased serum Bilirubin,' is incorrect as elevated bilirubin levels are typically seen in hepatitis due to impaired bilirubin metabolism. Choices C and D are unrelated to confirming a diagnosis of hepatitis as they describe findings not specific to liver function or hepatitis. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs (Choice C) suggest a different condition like anemia or infection, not specific to liver disease. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level (Choice D) is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function, thus not helpful in confirming hepatitis.

2. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

3. The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation is 88%.
• B. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute when lying flat.
• D. Pain level is 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation is 88%.' Following a thoracentesis, oxygen saturation should improve. A saturation of 88% suggests a potential complication like pneumothorax. While the other assessment findings are important, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. High blood pressure and respiratory rate may also need attention, but the immediate concern is the oxygen saturation level. Pain level, though significant for the patient's comfort, takes lower priority compared to the potential life-threatening issue of hypoxia.

4. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

• A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
• B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
• C. Metallic taste
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

5. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?

• A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
• B. Try to place the client on his side
• C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
• D. Place pillows around the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.

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