NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Turn the client on his side
- B. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves
- C. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it
- D. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
2. Following surgery to correct cryptorchidism, what is the priority action that the nurse should include in the plan of care?
- A. Prevent tension on the suture.
- B. Monitor urine for glucose and acetone.
- C. Encourage oral fluids, and monitor intake and output.
- D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent tension on the suture. After surgery for cryptorchidism, the testicle is held in position by an internal suture that should not be dislodged. Immobilization of the area for a week is crucial to prevent complications like bleeding and infection. Monitoring urine for glucose and acetone is unrelated to this surgery. While maintaining hydration is important, forcing fluids is not necessary. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every hour may be a postoperative consideration, but it is not the priority for this specific surgery.
3. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Purpose of antibiotic therapy
- B. Ways to limit oral fluid intake
- C. Appropriate use of cough suppressants
- D. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute bronchitis, which is often viral, cough suppressants can help manage the symptoms of a nonproductive cough. Antibiotics are not typically used in acute bronchitis unless there are systemic symptoms indicating a bacterial infection. Limiting oral fluid intake is not recommended; in fact, maintaining adequate hydration is important. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy may not be directly relevant to the management of acute bronchitis.
4. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
- A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
- B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
- C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
- D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
5. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?
- A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
- B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
- C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
- D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.
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