Nursing Elites

1. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

• A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
• B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
• C. There is low-grade fever.
• D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

3. A family member is complaining that the lights are too dim in the middle of the night when she comes in to visit her husband. What is the most objective response?

• A. Patients sleep better with the lights dimmed.
• B. The nightshift nurses prefer to work with less light.
• C. It's time for him to sleep, and you should, too.
• D. There's a reason we do that. Let me share a research study with you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most objective response in this situation is to explain to the family member that there is a specific reason for dimming the lights and offer to share a research study to provide evidence-based information. By doing so, it helps the family member understand that the care provided is based on established practices and research, potentially alleviating her concerns and ensuring that her husband receives appropriate care. Choices A, B, and C do not address the family member's concern or provide a rationale backed by evidence, making them less suitable responses in this context.

4. A patient diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided by the center includes

• A. Medical management of symptoms
• B. Daily psychotherapy
• C. Constant staff supervision
• D. Psychological stabilization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on the management of symptoms and medication. For a patient with a mild anxiety disorder, the primary focus would be on providing medical management of symptoms, such as prescribing appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness. Daily psychotherapy is not typically provided in community mental health centers for mild cases, as it may not be necessary. Constant staff supervision and psychological stabilization are more suited for patients requiring a higher level of care or in acute settings where continuous monitoring and stabilization are essential.

5. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.

• A. Infants: High bilirubin
• B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
• C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
• D. The Elderly: Malaria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.

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