Nursing Elites

1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
• B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.

2. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?

• A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
• B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
• C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
• D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

3. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?

• A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
• B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
• C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
• D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.

4. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?

• A. Galactorrhea
• B. Gynecomastia
• C. Amenorrhea
• D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

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