NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
2. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
4. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?
- A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
- B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
- C. Date new people whenever possible.
- D. Learn to constructively vent anger.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.
5. The nurse notes bruises on the pregnant client's face and abdomen. There are no bruises on her legs and arms. Further assessment is required to confirm which condition?
- A. Domestic abuse
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Domestic abuse is a serious concern during pregnancy as it can escalate, and the bruises on the face and abdomen may indicate physical violence towards the pregnant woman. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like an enlarged uterus for gestational age, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, not bruises. Excessive exercise typically leads to cardiovascular or pulmonary issues, not bruising. Thrombocytopenic purpura and other bleeding disorders usually present with bruises and petechiae on various body surfaces, not just limited to the face and abdomen.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access