a clients blood pressure reading is 15694 mm hg which action should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.

2. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.

3. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

4. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

5. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'

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