a client in a long term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum which has cracked and started to blister the nurse conirms that the
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

2. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

3. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

4. When taking blood pressures on a variety of people at a health fair, what should the nurse keep in mind?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing blood pressures, it is important to consider that the blood pressure of African-American adults is typically higher than that of non-Hispanic White adults of the same age. This is significant as Black individuals in the United States have a higher prevalence of hypertension compared to other groups. Blood pressure readings in women are generally higher than in men after menopause. Additionally, blood pressure measurements in overweight individuals are typically higher than those in individuals of normal weight. While teenagers may have lower blood pressure readings than adults, it is crucial to recognize the trend of a gradual rise in blood pressure throughout childhood and into adulthood. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the typical blood pressure differences observed in various populations.

5. Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.

Similar Questions

For the nursing diagnostic statement, Self-care deficit: feeding related to bilateral fractured wrists in casts, what is the major related factor or risk factor identified by the nurse?
Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?
A 1-month-old infant has a head measurement of 34 cm and a chest circumference of 32 cm. Based on the interpretation of these findings, what action would the nurse take?
A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup. The infant is currently sleeping. What would the nurse do first when beginning the examination?
When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses