Nursing Elites

1. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

2. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

3. Digestion, elimination, and ___________ are the three functions of the digestive system.

• A. constriction
• B. relaxation
• C. absorption
• D. peristalsis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'absorption.' The three main functions of the digestive system are digestion, absorption, and elimination. Absorption refers to the process of absorbing nutrients and other substances from the digested food into the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Constriction is not a primary function of the digestive system, relaxation is not a distinct function in this context, and peristalsis is a muscular movement that aids in digestion but is not one of the three main functions of the digestive system.

4. The student observes a patient with no breathing problems. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills?

• A. The student starts at the apices of the lungs and moves to the bases.
• B. The student compares breath sounds from side to side, avoiding bony areas.
• C. The student places the stethoscope over the posterior chest and listens during expiration.
• D. The student instructs the patient to breathe slowly and a little more deeply than normal through the mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Listening only during inspiration instead of both inspiration and expiration indicates a need for a review of respiratory assessment skills. During chest auscultation, it is essential to listen to at least one cycle of inspiration and expiration at each placement of the stethoscope. Instructing the patient to breathe slowly and a little deeper than normal through the mouth is a correct practice during auscultation. The correct sequence for lung auscultation is from the apices to the bases, comparing breath sounds bilaterally, avoiding bony areas. It is crucial to place the stethoscope over lung tissue rather than bony prominences to accurately assess lung sounds.

5. When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?

• A. Five seconds or less
• B. Ten seconds or less
• C. At least 30 seconds
• D. No longer than 60 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.

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