Nursing Elites

1. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

2. Over a patient's lifespan, how does the pulse rate change?

• A. starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages.
• B. starts out slower and increases as the patient ages.
• C. varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan.
• D. stays consistent from birth to death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the pulse rate starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. In infants, the normal pulse rate is around 140 beats per minute, which then falls to an average of 80 beats per minute in adults. As individuals age, their pulse rate tends to decrease due to changes in cardiovascular function. Choice B is incorrect as the pulse rate typically decreases with age, rather than increases. Choice C is incorrect as there is a general trend of decreasing pulse rate as individuals age, rather than a continuous variation. Choice D is incorrect as the pulse rate does change over a patient's lifespan, starting fast in infants and decreasing as they age.

3. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

• A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
• B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
• C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
• D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

4. A patient is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?

• A. She moves her arms away from her trunk
• B. She moves her arms toward her trunk
• C. She rotates her arms at the wrists while holding them away from her body
• D. She crosses her arms over her abdomen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abduction refers to moving a body part away from the midline of the body. In this case, when the patient abducts her arms, she is moving them away from her trunk. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes adduction, which is the movement of a body part toward the midline. Choice C describes wrist rotation, not arm abduction. Choice D describes crossing the arms over the abdomen, which is not the movement associated with abduction.

5. Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?

• A. A physical therapist
• B. A speech therapist
• C. A social worker
• D. An occupational therapist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.

Similar Questions