NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?
- A. The admission orders are written.
- B. A blood culture is drawn.
- C. A complete blood count with differential is drawn.
- D. The parents arrive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before starting antibiotics, a blood culture should be drawn to identify the causative organism. This step is crucial as antibiotics may interfere with the identification process. Drawing a complete blood count with differential or writing admission orders are important steps in patient care but are not as critical as obtaining a blood culture to guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. The arrival of the parents is not directly related to the immediate action required before starting antibiotics in this scenario.
2. An Asian-American woman is experiencing diarrhea, which is believed to be "cold"? or "yin."? What should the nurse recognize that the woman may likely try to treat it?
- A. Foods that are "hot"? or "yang"?
- B. Readings and Eastern medicine meditations
- C. High doses of medicines believed to be "cold"?
- D. No treatment because diarrhea is an expected part of life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the Asian-American woman is believed to be experiencing diarrhea due to a "cold"? or "yin"? imbalance. According to the yin/yang theory, yang represents heat and yin represents cold. Therefore, to balance the cold nature of the diarrhea, the woman may try to treat it by consuming foods that are considered "hot"? or "yang"?. This aligns with the concept that cold foods are eaten with a hot illness, and hot foods are eaten with a cold illness. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the yin/yang theory and are not relevant to addressing the imbalance associated with the cold nature of the diarrhea.
3. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
4. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?
- A. Whenever needed
- B. At bedtime
- C. During the night
- D. During the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.
5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage IV
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.
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