a 30 year old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy because of noninvasive endometrial cancer the nurse anticipates the client may hav
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.

2. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

3. A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a Hispanic patient presents with abdominal cramping related to empacho, it is crucial for the nurse to first understand the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences before initiating any interventions. In the case of a culture-bound syndrome like empacho, it is essential to acknowledge and respect the patient's cultural background. While options like administering medications, arranging a visit by a curandero(a), or providing massage may have potential benefits, assessing the patient's beliefs ensures that interventions are culturally sensitive and aligned with the patient's values. By engaging the patient in a discussion about potential treatments, the nurse can gather valuable information to tailor care effectively, promoting trust and collaboration in the healthcare process. This patient-centered approach enhances the quality of care and fosters a culturally competent nursing practice. Therefore, asking the patient about preferred treatments is the most appropriate initial action to address the patient's condition effectively.

4. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

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