while conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic the nurse notes that his affect is flat he responds to que
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

2. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.

3. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement about aliens coming to get them could indicate confusion, which raises concerns about their neurologic status. Since informed consent for surgery requires the client to be mentally competent, the nurse should assess the client's neurologic status to ensure they understand and can legally provide consent. Option A of making the client comfortable and letting them sleep does not address the potential neurologic issue. If the nurse finds the client to be confused, it is essential to inform the surgeon and seek permission from the next of kin if necessary. Therefore, assessing the client's neurologic status is the priority to ensure the client's ability to consent to the surgery.

4. While receiving a preoperative enema, a client starts to cry and says, 'I'm sorry you have to do this messy thing for me.' Which is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response in this situation is to acknowledge the client's emotional state, as it shows empathy and encourages further expression of feelings. Choice A, 'I don't mind it,' dismisses the client's emotions and does not address the underlying issue. Choice C, 'This is part of my job,' focuses on the task rather than the client's emotional needs. Choice D, 'Nurses get used to this,' minimizes the client's feelings and lacks empathy. By selecting choice B, 'You seem upset,' the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens the door for further communication and support.

5. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

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