NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
- D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
2. What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?
- A. A cry for help
- B. A need for attention
- C. Ambivalence about dying
- D. An inability to stick to a decision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ambivalence about dying.' When a client calls the emergency department during a suicide attempt, it suggests conflicting feelings about living and dying. This act can indicate an unconscious desire to be stopped from dying, showing ambivalence between the wish to die and the wish to live. It is not primarily a cry for attention or a need to punish others. The client's intention of suicide alongside seeking help demonstrates the struggle between life and death, making ambivalence the key psychodynamic process at play.
3. Which benefit accompanies mild apprehension?
- A. Physiological functions are slowed.
- B. There is an increased alertness.
- C. Behavioral responses become automatic.
- D. Ego defense mechanisms are mobilized.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A mild level of anxiety can be beneficial because it increases alertness and focuses attention. Physiological functions are actually amplified initially, not slowed, due to mild apprehension; however, prolonged anxiety can lead to decreased function due to exhaustion. Automatic behavioral responses and ego defense mechanisms may hinder an individual's awareness rather than enhancing it, making them less beneficial compared to increased alertness.
4. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?
- A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
- B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
- C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.
5. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?
- A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
- B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
- C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
- D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.
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