Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?

• A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
• B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
• C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
• D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain

2. Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?

• A. It's a relief your children weren't left without a mother.
• B. What were you thinking?
• C. We're here to help patients who value life.
• D. I know life can be difficult. We're here to help you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.

3. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

4. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

5. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

• A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
• B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
• C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
• D. Assign a staff member to be with the client at all times to help maintain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.

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