Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?

• A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
• B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
• C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
• D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain

2. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

• A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
• D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

3. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

4. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

5. A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?

• A. Contain histamine and provide protection during allergic reactions
• B. Are involved in phagocytosis
• C. Provide protection and immunity against foreign substances
• D. Carry hemoglobin and oxygen to body tissues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.

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