to reduce the risk of venous thrombosis the nurse should instruct the client in measures that promote venous return such as dorsiflexion and plantar
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.

2. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.

3. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

4. Your patient has been confused for years. Your patient can be best described as having a chronic ___________ disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who experience long-term confusion often have a chronic thinking, or cognitive, disorder. Alzheimer's disease is a prime example of a disorder that results in prolonged confusion and memory loss. Choice A, 'physical', is incorrect as the issue described is related to cognitive functioning, not physical health. Choice B, 'psychotic', refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality, which is not the primary issue presented in the scenario. Choice D, 'palliative', is not relevant as it pertains to specialized medical care for individuals with serious illnesses, focusing on providing relief from symptoms and stress rather than managing chronic confusion.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

Similar Questions

When performing a cultural assessment with a patient from a different culture, what action should the nurse take first?
A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?
When caring for a patient who speaks a different language and an interpreter is unavailable, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A client decides to have hospice care rather than undergo an extensive surgical procedure. Which ethical principle does the client's behavior illustrate?

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