NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?
- A. Instruct in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique to change the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.
2. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Functional incontinence
- C. Fluid volume deficit
- D. High risk for infection
Correct answer: High risk for infection
Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.
3. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
- A. Infants: High bilirubin
- B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
- C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
- D. The Elderly: Malaria
Correct answer: Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
4. Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse’s assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Histoplasmosis
Correct answer: Pneumonia
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of coughing up rust-colored sputum, increased respiratory rate, expiratory grunting, and coarse crackles on lung auscultation suggests the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by lung tissue inflammation or infection, often caused by various organisms. Symptoms may include productive cough, dyspnea, and abnormal breath sounds. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats and is less likely in this acute post-operative setting. Pulmonary edema (Choice B) is characterized by pink, frothy sputum, crackles throughout the lungs, and typically occurs in the context of heart failure. Histoplasmosis (Choice D) is a fungal infection that usually presents with flu-like symptoms and is less likely to manifest with the specific respiratory findings described in this case.
5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: First-generation antipsychotic drugs
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
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