NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?
- A. Instruct in the use of the incentive spirometer.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
- C. Use aseptic technique to change the dressing.
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.
2. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?
- A. Just wait here and I will notify security.
- B. I'm going to speak with the physician about getting some medication that may help you.
- C. Why is your roommate trying to kill you?
- D. Have you called the police to report this?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.
3. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?
- A. EEG
- B. EKG
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.
4. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
- A. Confrontation
- B. Open communication
- C. Health teaching about childrearing
- D. Validation of the child's physical status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.
5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?
- A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
- B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
- C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
- D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.
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