Nursing Elites

1. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?

• A. Instruct in the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
• C. Use aseptic technique to change the dressing.
• D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.

2. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

• A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
• B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
• C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
• D. Discuss reasons for the client's suspicions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.

3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

4. A client who just had a bilateral mastectomy is preparing to talk about body changes. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate during this discussion?

• A. Provide a room that offers minimal distractions
• B. Ask closed-ended questions to allow the client to think about her situation
• C. Write detailed notes during the conversation to track important information
• D. Ask personal questions about the client's background to determine how the procedure has affected her self-concept

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to discuss sensitive topics such as body changes post-bilateral mastectomy, it is crucial to create a conducive environment. Providing a room with minimal distractions allows the client to feel comfortable, safe, and more likely to open up about personal feelings without interruptions. This setting fosters open communication between the nurse and client, facilitating a more empathetic and supportive interaction. Closed-ended questions (Choice B) may limit the client's ability to express emotions fully. Writing detailed notes (Choice C) during the conversation may distract the nurse from actively listening and being present for the client. Asking personal questions about the client's background (Choice D) may not be appropriate during such a vulnerable discussion and could potentially create discomfort for the client.

5. When the health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation as the older adult is capable of making decisions.
• B. The son cannot waive informed consent for the client since there is no evidence of mental incompetence.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health care providers may be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery, if they carry out a treatment without the client's consent. The client's condition is stable, so the family cannot provide consent without her involvement, making option A incorrect. There is no evidence of mental incompetence in the client, so the son cannot waive informed consent, making option B incorrect. While therapeutic privilege may have been accepted in the past, it is unlikely to be upheld by today's courts, making option C incorrect. It is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from clients before proceeding with any treatment to avoid legal consequences and uphold ethical standards.

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