Nursing Elites

1. The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?

• A. Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the inhaler.
• B. Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth.
• C. Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose.
• D. Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure optimal benefits from a metered-dose inhaler, the client should be instructed to compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This technique facilitates the medication to reach deep into the lungs, allowing for an optimal bronchodilation effect. Option B is correct as it promotes the proper coordination of inhaler compression and inhalation, ensuring effective drug delivery. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not support deep lung penetration of the medication, which is essential for its effectiveness in treating respiratory conditions.

2. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

3. A client is discussing his personal feelings of self-esteem and self-concept with a nurse. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for assessing the client's personal identity?

• A. What is your educational background?
• B. Are your parents still living?
• C. What do you like about your life right now?
• D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's personal identity, it is essential for the nurse to inquire about aspects related to the client's self-perception and self-worth. Asking about what the client likes about his current life helps to explore his positive self-perceptions and areas of contentment. This question encourages the client to reflect on his present circumstances and identify aspects that contribute to his sense of personal identity. Choices A, B, and D are not as relevant for assessing personal identity as they focus on educational background, parental status, and future aspirations, respectively, rather than directly addressing the client's current self-perception and identity.

4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

5. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

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