NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home, I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.
2. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?
- A. Attempts to minimize the illness
- B. Lacks an emotional response to the illness
- C. Refuses to discuss the condition with the client's spouse
- D. Expresses displeasure with the prescribed activity program
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.
3. Which of the following is a nursing intervention for a client who is experiencing an acute panic attack?
- A. Encourage the client to sit down in a quiet environment
- B. Allow the client to direct the situation
- C. Try to focus the client on one aspect of care, such as regulating breathing patterns
- D. Speak in a commanding tone of voice to get the client's attention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assisting a client with an acute panic attack, the primary goal is to help reduce their anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to focus on one controllable aspect, like regulating breathing patterns, can aid in calming them down. This intervention helps the client to regain control over their breathing, which can alleviate some of the symptoms associated with panic attacks. Options A and B are incorrect because allowing the client to direct the situation or sit down in a quiet environment may not be beneficial during an acute panic attack. Option D is inappropriate as speaking in a commanding tone can further escalate the client's anxiety rather than helping to calm them down.
4. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?
- A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
- B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
- C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
- D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.
5. The client is still unable to sleep despite following the progressive muscle relaxation technique routine taught by the nurse. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to their daily routine.
- B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
- C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
- D. Ask the client to describe the routine they are currently following.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's initial step should be to assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine they are following, the nurse gains more specific information than relying solely on a sleep diary. This information will help the nurse identify any deviations or areas needing adjustment in the technique. Encouraging the client to persist with an unsuccessful routine without evaluation is not beneficial. Adding regular exercise, although important for overall sleep health, should come after ensuring the correct execution of the relaxation technique.
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