the nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night which client statement indicates that the nurse should
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.

2. When assessing the mental status of a young school-aged child, which action would be important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately assess the mental status of a young school-aged child, it is crucial for the nurse to compare the child's function over time. This approach allows for a more objective evaluation of the child's mental status. While listening to the parents' description of the child's behavior can provide valuable insights, it may be biased and subjective. Engaging parents in discussions about the child's feelings is important for overall understanding but may not directly assess the child's mental status. Directly questioning the child about their mental status can be threatening and may lead to anxiety, making it a less optimal approach compared to observing and comparing the child's function over time.

3. A female client with frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) asks the nurse to explain her friend's advice about drinking a glass of juice daily to prevent future UTIs. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cranberry juice stops pathogens' adherence to the bladder.' Cranberry juice maintains urinary tract health by reducing the adherence of Escherichia coli bacteria to cells within the bladder. This helps prevent UTIs. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because orange juice with vitamin C, apple juice for urine acidification, and grapefruit juice for antibiotic absorption do not have the same proven effectiveness in preventing UTIs as cranberry juice does.

4. A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.

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