the health care provider has changed a clients prescription from the po to the iv route of administration the nurse should anticipate which change in
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.

2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

3. On the first postpartum day, a client whose infant is rooming in asks the nurse to return her baby to the nursery and bring the baby to her only at feeding times. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stating that it seems that the client has changed her mind opens communication and allows the client to verbalize her thoughts and feelings. This response acknowledges the client's request without being judgmental. Stating that the client is having difficulty caring for the baby is presumptuous and could make the client defensive. Informing other nurses of the client's decision without exploring the reasons behind it may not address the client's concerns. Although the client may be tired, assuming this without further discussion may overlook the client's true feelings and needs, hindering effective communication and support.

4. Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.

5. One week after being told that she has terminal cancer with a life expectancy of 3 weeks, a female client tells the nurse, 'I think I will plan a big party for all my friends.' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting goals that bring pleasure is appropriate and should be encouraged by the nurse as long as the nurse does not perpetuate a client's denial. Option A is a negative response, implying that the client should not plan a party, which is not supportive. Option B is presumptive and may not reflect the client's true intentions. The correct response (Option C) acknowledges the client's positive plans and encourages her to enjoy her time with friends. Option D, while family is important, does not consider the client's wishes and choices, which should be respected and supported in this situation.

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